What is the Taylor expansion for 1/(1-exp(-1))?

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The Taylor expansion for the function \( f(x) = \frac{1}{1 - \exp(-1)} \) is derived by substituting \( x = \exp(-1) \) into the series expansion of \( \frac{1}{1 - x} \). The series is expressed as \( \sum_{i=0}^{\infty} x^i \), leading to the conclusion that the Taylor expansion for the constant \( \frac{1}{1 - \exp(-1)} \) contains only one term, which is the value itself. The discussion clarifies that while the function is constant, approximations can be made using Taylor series for \( \frac{1}{1 - \exp(-x)} \) for variable \( x \).

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Callisto
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Hi

How do you expand

(1-exp(-1))^-1

as Taylor series

Callisto
 
Last edited:
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Try long division to get a Taylor (or McClaurin) series for f(x) = 1/(1-x) for a start.

Then put x=exp(-1) into that series, and there you go!
 
Taylor series for

1/(1-x) = (1-x)^-1 = 1 + x^2 + x^3 + x^4 +...= SUMi x^i

Then sub in exp(-1) for x
That's it?
 
Yes. That's it.
 
Cheers James R!
 
a constant has a trivial Taylor expansion

The expression you submitted is a constant, it doesn't depend on x.
All derivatives of this function with respect to x (the assumed variable) are zero.

Therefore the Taylor expansion contains only one term (and is exact):

f(x) = 1/(1-exp(-1)) + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ... = 1/(1-exp(-1))

(unless you did not formulate your problem correctly)
 
Last edited:
Technically, you're right of course, lalbatros, but your solution doesn't seem to fit the spirit of the question which was asked. Maybe the question was a little unclear, though...
 
You are probably right James.
The question probably was: "how can I get an approximate value for 1/(1-exp(-1)) using Taylor expansions".
Then, there are numerous ways to choose how to expand.
For example:

1/(1-exp(-x)) = 1 /(1-sumi((-x)^i / i!))

or explicitely:

1/(1-exp(-x)) = 1/(x-x^2/2+x^3/6-x^4/24+x^5/120 ...)
 

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