I Taylor series of 1/ln(t+1) at t=0

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The discussion revolves around calculating the Taylor series for 1/ln(t+1) at t=0, where a participant struggles with obtaining the correct series expansion. They initially derive an incorrect result using polynomial long division, leading to confusion over the coefficients. Other contributors suggest that errors may stem from sign mistakes or misinterpretation of the Taylor series, emphasizing the importance of careful calculations. They also clarify that 1/ln(1+t) does not have a Taylor series at t=0 due to the function being undefined at that point, but it can be expressed as a Laurent series. The conversation highlights the complexities involved in series expansions and the potential for errors in manual calculations.
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I have tried to use the natural Taylor expansion of ln(t+1)
and working with long division but I get the result 1/t+1/2+t/12−t^2/24+⋯
instead of 1/t+1/2-t/12+t^2/24+... that is the right result
I have tried to do this several time but still don't works. Is there a miscalculation in my long division?
 
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laurabon said:
I have tried to use the natural Taylor expansion of ln(t+1)
and working with long division but I get the result 1/t+1/2+t/12−t^2/24+⋯
instead of 1/t+1/2-t/12+t^2/24+... that is the right result
I have tried to do this several time but still don't works. Is there a miscalculation in my long division?
Hard to tell without seeing your calculation.

The Taylor series at a point ##t_0=0## is
$$
f(t)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{(t-t_0)^n}{n!} \left.\dfrac{d^{n}}{dt^n}\right|_{t_0}f(t)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\dfrac{t^n}{n!}f^{(n)}(0)
$$
so we need primarily the derivatives of ##f(t)=\log(t+1).##
\begin{align*}
f^{(0)}(t)&=\log(t+1)&\quad f^{(0)}(0)=\log(1)=0\\
f^{(1)}(t)&=\dfrac{1}{t+1}&\quad f^{(1)}(0)=\dfrac{1}{0+1}=1\\
f^{(2)}(t)&=-\dfrac{1}{(t+1)^2}&\quad f^{(2)}(0)=-\dfrac{1}{(0+1)^2}=-1\\
f^{(3)}(t)&=\dfrac{2}{(t+1)^3}&\quad f^{(3)}(0)=\dfrac{2}{(0+1)^3}=2\\
&\ldots &\ldots
\end{align*}
Now go on as long as you like and gather what you have.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Hard to tell without seeing your calculation.

The Taylor series at a point ##t_0=0## is
$$
f(t)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{(t-t_0)^n}{n!} \left.\dfrac{d^{n}}{dt^n}\right|_{t_0}f(t)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\dfrac{t^n}{n!}f^{(n)}(0)
$$
so we need primarily the derivatives of ##f(t)=\log(t+1).##
\begin{align*}
f^{(0)}(t)&=\log(t+1)&\quad f^{(0)}(0)=\log(1)=0\\
f^{(1)}(t)&=\dfrac{1}{t+1}&\quad f^{(1)}(0)=\dfrac{1}{0+1}=1\\
f^{(2)}(t)&=-\dfrac{1}{(t+1)^2}&\quad f^{(2)}(0)=-\dfrac{1}{(0+1)^2}=-1\\
f^{(3)}(t)&=\dfrac{2}{(t+1)^3}&\quad f^{(3)}(0)=\dfrac{2}{(0+1)^3}=2\\
&\ldots &\ldots
\end{align*}
Now go on as long as you like and gather what you have.
I agree with you and mabe is the safest way . About my calculation : I have used also walphram alpha and it says that 1/(x-x^2/2+x^3/6) (I used only these terms for ln(1+t) = 1/t+1/2+t/12−t^2/24

instead 1/log(1+t)=1/t+1/2-t/12+t^2/24 why this happens?
 
laurabon said:
I have tried to use the natural Taylor expansion of ln(t+1)
and working with long division but I get the result 1/t+1/2+t/12−t^2/24+⋯
instead of 1/t+1/2-t/12+t^2/24+... that is the right result
I have tried to do this several time but still don't works. Is there a miscalculation in my long division?
So, what you did was:
$$\ln(1 + t) = t - \frac{t^2} 2 + \frac{t^3} 3 -\frac{t^4}{4} \dots$$$$\frac 1 {\ln(1+t)} = \frac 1 {t - \frac{t^2} 2 + \frac{t^3} 3 -\frac{t^4}{4} \dots} = \frac 1 t + \frac 1 2 + \frac t {12} - \frac {t^2}{24} \dots $$Using polynomial long division?
 
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PeroK said:
So, what you did was:
$$\ln(1 + t) = 1 - t + t^2 - t^3 \dots$$$$\frac 1 {\ln(1+t)} = \frac 1 {1 - t + t^2 - t^3 \dots} = \frac 1 t + \frac 1 2 + \frac t {12} - \frac {t^2}{24} \dots $$Using polynomial long division?
yes. Is it wrong ? the coefficient for log are different because I have used the Talor series but the calculation is that
 
laurabon said:
I agree with you and mabe is the safest way . About my calculation : I have used also walphram alpha and it says that 1/(x-x^2/2+x^3/6) (I used only these terms for ln(1+t) = 1/t+1/2+t/12−t^2/24

instead 1/log(1+t)=1/t+1/2-t/12+t^2/24 why this happens?
Sorry, I didn't see the inversion. It wasn't part of your post and was hidden in the title.
Please use https://www.physicsforums.com/help/latexhelp/ and show what you actually did.

You can easily make sign errors in a long division if you aren't careful enough. And to deal with the long denominator is a nightmare, too. You'd probably better solve
$$
1=\left(x-\dfrac{x^2}{2}+\dfrac{x^3}{3}-\dfrac{x^4}{4}\pm \ldots\right)\cdot (a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^4+\ldots)
$$
 
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fresh_42 said:
Sorry, I didn't see the inversion. It wasn't part of your post and was hidden in the title.
Please use https://www.physicsforums.com/help/latexhelp/ and show what you actually did.

You can easily make sign errors in a long division if you aren't careful enough. And to deal with the long denominator is a nightmare, too. You'd probably better solve
$$
1=\left(x-\dfrac{x^2}{2}+\dfrac{x^3}{3}-\dfrac{x^4}{4}\pm \ldots\right)\cdot (a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^4+\ldots)
$$
Yes you are right , it was my error . I was considering the denominator of taylor expansionfor log(1+x) with factorial but... it doesn't hae factorials... about what you proposed in yyour post , doing multiplication shouldn't a_0 be 0? because on the right I have 1+0x+0x^2=a_0x
 
laurabon said:
Yes you are right , it was my error . I was considering the denominator of taylor expansionfor log(1+x) with factorial but... it doesn't hae factorials... about what you proposed in yyour post , doing multiplication shouldn't a_0 be 0? because on the right I have 1+0x+0x^2=a_0x
If I look at the result, I should have started with ##a_{-1}\dfrac{1}{x}+a_0+a_1x+\ldots ## Then ##a_0## turns out to be a half.
 
If you only need a few of the first terms, I'd do it like this:
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{\log(1+t)} &= \frac{1}{t-t^2/2+t^3/3-t^4/4+\cdots} \\
&= \frac{1}{t}\left[\frac{1}{1-\underbrace{\left(\frac{t}{2}-\frac{t^2}{3}+\frac{t^3}{4}+\cdots\right) }_x}\right] \\
&= \frac{1}{t}(1+x+x^2+x^3+\cdots)
\end{align*} Inside the parentheses, the term linear in ##t## only gets a contribution from ##x##. The ##t^2## term has two contributions: the second term of ##x## and the first term of ##x^2##, so you'd have
$$\frac{1}{\log(1+t)} = \frac{1}{t}\left[1+\frac{1}{2} t + \left(-\frac 13 + \frac 14\right) t^2 + \cdots\right]$$ And so on.
 
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  • #10
1/\log(1 + t) doesn't have a Taylor series about t = 0, because the function is not defined (and therefore not differentiable) there: \log(1 + 0) = \log 1 = 0. It does have a Laurent series about t = 0.
 
  • #11
laurabon said:
I have tried to use the natural Taylor expansion of ln(t+1)
What is "the natural Taylor expansion"? Is this is typo?

-Dan