The Fourier transform of the Fourier transform

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the mathematical concept of taking the Fourier transform of a function and then taking the Fourier transform of the resulting function. The key equation discussed is F(s) = ∫_{x=-∞}^{∞} f(x)e^{-2πisx}dx. Participants clarify that the Fourier transform of the Fourier transform of a suitably regular function f results in f(-x). The term 'suitably regular' is defined as a condition where the Fourier transform exists and the inverse transform returns the original function.

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  • Understanding of Fourier transforms and their properties
  • Familiarity with complex analysis and integration techniques
  • Knowledge of dummy variable substitution in integrals
  • Concept of 'suitably regular' functions in the context of Fourier analysis
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  • Learn about the implications of the Plancherel theorem
  • Explore the concept of 'suitably regular' functions in functional analysis
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Poopsilon
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Homework Statement



Let f be a suitably regular function on ℝ. (whatever that means).

What function do we obtain when we take the Fourier transform of the Fourier transform of f?

Homework Equations



F(s) = \int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-2\pi isx}dx

The Attempt at a Solution



\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}F(s)e^{-2\pi isx}dx = F(s)\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2\pi isx}dx = F(s)[\frac{-e^{-2\pi isx}}{2\pi is}]_{x=-\infty}^{\infty} = \frac{F(s)i}{2\pi s}[e^{-2\pi isx}]_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}

But this simply oscillates indefinitely around a complex circle as x goes to negative infinity and infinity, where have I gone wrong?
 
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when taking the Fourier transform of F(s), you must treat "s" as "x" when you substitute into the formula
 
Thanks sunjin09, could you also tell me what 'suitably regular' means?
 
Poopsilon said:
Thanks sunjin09, could you also tell me what 'suitably regular' means?

It means the Fourier transform exists, and the inverse transform gives back to the original function.
 
Ok, here's what I've got now:

\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}F(x)e^{-2\pi isx}dx = \int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty}(\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-2\pi ix^2}dx)e^{-2\pi isy}dy = \int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-2\pi ix^2}(\int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2\pi isy}dy)dx = F(s)\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-2\pi ix^2}dx

Is this it, or can I simplify more?

Edit: Actually this isn't right, I think I may have made some illegal moves with the dummy variables.. Let's try this:

\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}F(x)e^{-2\pi isx}dx = \int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty}(\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(y)e^{-2\pi ixy}dx)e^{-2\pi isy}dy = \int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2\pi ixy}(\int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty}f(y)e^{-2\pi isy}dy)dx = F(s)\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-2\pi ixy}dx
 
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When you write F(s) as F(x), you must write f(x) as say, f(u), don't use the same symbol for different quantities, the answer is very simple, just be careful with substitutions
 
Ok is the answer then, F(s)F(r)?
 
actually I think it's f(-x), is this correct?
 

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