On page 13 of Griffith's "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics 2nd ed" David goes into a long (relatively speaking) proof of why a normalized pair of quantum state vectors will not at some time later become "un-normalized". It seems like just putting the Psi's in a braket the e^(-it) "time dependence" term would just cancel out -- showing that normalization is not time dependent. Could anyone take a shot at why this is not the case -- other than the fact he has not developed braket notation or shown that the time dependence a separate exponent factor? Maybe I just answered my own question :D Is there anything wrong with showing it this way?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks,

Chris Maness

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# The Time Independence of Normalization

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**