In Introduction to Quantum Mechanics by Griffith, when he is normalizing a wave function that's dependent on both x and t, he lets t=0 , and solves for the constant (A). But if the integration of ψ^2 at any time t is 1, then is it correct to let t = 2, for instance, instead of 0 and solve for A? If yes, that would mean that A could be an infinite number of different A's, and that would be wrong because we would get different values for expectation values of position for every constant A. And if No, explain why please.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Wavefunction Normalization at Different Times

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