The word "won't" does not look logically formed

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the contraction "won't," which represents "will not" but appears illogically formed due to the placement of the letter 'o' before 'n.' Participants explore its etymology, suggesting that "won't" is a remnant from Old English, influenced by playwrights like Shakespeare. The conversation also touches on the evolution of English contractions and the borrowing of words from other languages, highlighting the complexities of English spelling and pronunciation.

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  • Understanding of English linguistics and contractions
  • Familiarity with Old English and its influence on modern English
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  • Research the etymology of English contractions, focusing on "won't" and "shan't."
  • Explore the influence of Shakespeare and other playwrights on modern English.
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  • #31
phinds said:
It ain't. Get over it.
Where did ain't come from.
Used to mean "are not", but now you get the ruler for using it.
Well , maybe not now, but at one time, when teachers had the powre pohwa.

EDIT: changed power to a Boston accent.
 
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  • #32
256bits said:
Where did ain't come from.
Used to mean "are not", but now you get the ruler for using it.
Well , maybe not now, but at one time, when teachers had the powre.
The Wikipedia Ain't article covers this well enough -- It contains a reference to 'rhoticity' -- 'whether' or 'whethə' the 'r' is pronounced or not, when it immediately follows, but does not immediately precede, another vowel -- fascinating fodder for amateur philologists.
 
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  • #33
256bits said:
Used to mean "are not", but now you get the ruler for using it.
Originally "ain't" was a contraction of "am not" per the Wiki article that @sysprog referred to. More recently it has become a contraction for am not, is not, and are not.

As a side note, I was watching an Irish series called "Blood" and one character said "I amn't," something I'd never heard before.
 
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  • #34
Syntactic quirks from the language that brought you sentences like
'James, while John had had "had", had had "had had"; "had had" had had a better effect on the teacher'
 
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  • #36
DaveC426913 said:
Heh. I like that. I'm going to start writing all my correspondence using British/Canadian spellings for lable, decible, reble and lible.
Once, while working in the U.S., I comment to a colleague that for some words, Canadians commonly use British spelling, while for other words, Canadians commonly use American spelling. Former, "colour"; latter, "tire". My colleague then asked "Do Canadians spell 'civilization' with an ess or a zee?" I replied "Canadians spell 'civilization' with a zed."
 
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  • #37
Vanadium 50 said:
There's a story told about a sign painter who was hired to paint a sign for the front of a bakery. The sign was to read "Pies and Cakes."
After working on the layout awhile, the painter asked the baker, "How much space should I leave between Pies and and and and and Cakes?"
 
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  • #38
I hope the baker gave the answer in pie-cas.
 
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  • #39
Very interesting. I had wondered about this too. Just figured it was something we borrowed but really had no idea other than that.
 

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