Thermal interpretation and EPR experiment

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[Moderator's note: Thread spun off from previous thread due to topic change.]

For a discussion of potentials and problems of this approach (including references) see the threads Is QED nonrelativistic? and Lattice QED, and posts #73 and the subsequent discussion from the thread How to derive Born's rule for arbitrary observables from Bohmian mechanics?
The thermal interpretation of the double slit experiment is very appealing alternative explanation to the Bohmian interpretation as I understood it from these discussions:
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/the-double-slit-in-the-thermal-interpretation.970593/
https://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physfaq/therm/topics/s25.html

That being said, is it correct to say the thermal interpretation does not have an explanation for the non-local result of the EPR experiment? At least that is how I was understanding it from these discussions:
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/the-thermal-interpretation-of-quantum-physics.967116/page-13
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/entangled-particles-in-the-thermal-interpretation.886120/
 
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A. Neumaier
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is it correct to say the thermal interpretation does not have an explanation for the non-local result of the EPR experiment?
The thermal interpretation explains it by the usual quantum mechanical computations that lead to predictions violating the Bell inequalities. No other explanation is necessary since the thermal interpretation is fully consistent with the mathematical apparatus of quantum mechanics.
 

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