Trying to find an easier way to compute the double sum

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The discussion revolves around computing the double sum $$\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=i+1}^n j$$ and establishing its equality to $$\sum_{i=1}^ni^2$$. Participants explore various methods to prove this equality without directly computing the sums, including changing the boundaries of summation. One participant successfully derives the relationship using known identities for sums, leading to a confirmation of the equality. The conversation concludes with an appreciation for the mathematical insight gained regarding the sum of squares and the binomial theorem.
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I computed the double sum
$$\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=i+1}^n j = \sum_{i=0}^n\big(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}-\frac{i(i+1)}{2}\big)=\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$
and realized the double sum is equal to $$\sum_{i=1}^ni^2$$
which leads to
$$\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=i+1}^n j = \sum_{i=1}^ni^2$$

Is there a proof of this equality that doesn't require computing out the sums?

I thought that I should try changing the boundaries of integration

##0\leq i+1\leq j\leq n## so

$$\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=i+1}^n j = \sum_{j=0}^n\sum_{i=0}^j j = \sum_{j=0}^n j(j+1)=\Big(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}+1\Big)\Big(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\Big)$$

but I was unable to even do this properly since the above isn't equal to ##\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}##
 
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docnet said:
I thought that I should try changing the boundaries of integration
Summation, not integration...
docnet said:
##0\leq i+1\leq j\leq n## so

$$\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=i+1}^n j = \sum_{j=0}^n\sum_{i=0}^j j \dots$$

but I was unable to even do this properly since the above isn't equal to ##\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}##
I would work with the two summations above, with paper and pencil, to see if they are generating the same terms. If not, that's your answer.
 
If I understand correctly, write\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=0}^n \sum_{j=i+1}^n j &= \sum_{i=0}^n \left( \frac{n(n+1)}{2} - \frac{i(i+1)}{2} \right) \\
&= \frac{n(n+1)^2}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2 - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i \\
&= \frac{n(n+1)^2}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2 - \dfrac{n(n+1)}{4} \\
&= \dfrac{3}{2} \cdot \dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2
\end{align*}Can you finish it?
 
ergospherical said:
If I understand correctly, write\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=0}^n \sum_{j=i+1}^n j &= \sum_{i=0}^n \left( \frac{n(n+1)}{2} - \frac{i(i+1)}{2} \right) \\
&= \frac{n(n+1)^2}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2 - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i \\
&= \frac{n(n+1)^2}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2 - \dfrac{n(n+1)}{4} \\
&= \dfrac{3}{2} \cdot \dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2
\end{align*}Can you finish it?
Hi, Thank you so much!

This is the way I computed the sum initially.

$$\dfrac{3}{2} \cdot \dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2$$

I used the identity
$$ \sum_{i=0}^n i^2=\dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$

so
$$\dfrac{3}{2} \cdot \dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} - \dfrac{1}{2} \sum_{i=0}^n i^2=\dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$

In the OP I was wondering if this was a coincidence that the double sum was equal to
$$\sum_{i=0}^n i^2$$

sorry, I suck at syntax.
 
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this is the explanation I could find for the sum of squares: In elementary algebra, the binomial theorem (or binomial expansion) describes the algebraic expansion of powers of a binomial.
Screen Shot 2021-11-25 at 4.46.19 AM.png
 
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The double sum is equal to
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + n
+ 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + n
+ 3 + 4 + ... + n
...
+n
=1*1 + 2*2 + 3*3 + ... + n*n
 
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mjc123 said:
The double sum is equal to
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + n
+ 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + n
+ 3 + 4 + ... + n
...
+n
=1*1 + 2*2 + 3*3 + ... + n*n
well that answers my wuestion nicely. thank you :)
 
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