HackaB said:
It does make very good sense that the frame of the thrown watch should be considered the inertial frame and the held watch be should be the accelerated frame. But I don't understand why you insist that acceleration does not affect proper time. Sure, it doesn't appear explicitly in the formula. But if a(t) is the acceleration, a(t) determines v(t) up to a constant. Are you saying that the elapsed proper time on a spaceship going from event A to event B does not depend on how it got there?
Go back and look at the context of my statement. It was in respect to whether the thrown watch was to be synchronized before or after it was thrown. The difference between those two states has to do with the acceleration, or velocity change of the watch. In that context, it doesn't matter at which point the watch was synchronized.
HackaB said:
That is saying that the integral
\int_A^B ds = \int_A^B \sqrt{1 - (v/c)^2} dt
doesn't depend on the function you choose for v. Please correct me if I misunderstand you.
Sometimes I wonder why it is I keep getting asked questions that amount to "are you so stupid that you believe X", when any high school student wouldn't believe X. Is it something about this forum? Look, it was you who twice posted the wrong answer to the problem, not me. The thrown watch is the inertial one, the one with the larger interval of proper time, not the held one.
As it turns out, back when I was in grad school, I taught a "recitation" section for a quarter that included relativity, to undergraduates. It is a common misconception among students that acceleration causes time dilation. The question I was answering was in the context of this misconception.
By the way, during the recitation, the students wouldn't believe me when I insisted on an answer to another relativity question. In fact, they insisted that the professor had told them otherwise. I'll put the question up as another homework problem.
My guess is that the professor did tell them something that wasn't true, but with relativity, there is so much that is unintuitive, that it is easy to do. Of course as a graduate student, I couldn't tell them that a professor was wrong; so I laughed and told them that there was no way that he had said that, but that they must have misheard what he really said. I'm just glad nobody had a tape recorder.
This is very very basic stuff to physicists. No one has the slightest doubt as to what causes time dilation. It's velocity. Sure acceleration causes changes in velocity, but when you write your equations down, the change in proper time will end up proportional to the velocity, not the acceleration (which has to do with changes in velocity and not velocity per se).
Sure, acceleration causes velocity changes, and velocity changes cause time dilation, so in a certain sense, acceleration causes time dilation. You can say this, but your logic is iffy.
Electric fields cause forces. Forces cause acceleration. Acceleration causes velocity. So according to your logic, electric fields cause time dilation.
Proper time gets dilated even in situations where there is no acceleration at all. For example, in the case where the traveling twin doesn't turn around at Alpha Centauri, but instead gives the time to a third astronaut who is going back towards earth.
Carl
By the way, a plastic surgeon wrote an article on this very subject. (No physicist would touch it because it is too simple.) I can't vouch for it. I haven't read it. I haven't read the journal it was published in, etc., but here it is:
http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1997AmJPh..65..979G