Ultimate question: Why anything at all?

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The discussion centers on the philosophical question of why there is something rather than nothing, highlighting the paradox of existence. Weinberg notes that while quantum mechanics provides a framework for understanding reality, it does not answer why these laws govern our universe. The argument suggests that with infinite possibilities, the probability of nothingness existing is effectively zero, implying that existence is more probable than non-existence. Participants express differing views on the implications of this reasoning, with some arguing it leads to nihilism, while others see it as a fundamental inquiry into the nature of reality. Ultimately, the conversation reflects on the complexity and depth of the question, emphasizing that it remains largely unanswerable.
  • #121
bohm2 said:
So what you're saying here is even the empty set is, in the final analysis, a set? Kind of like even if we were to take all the stuff out from the bucket, the bucket remains?

Yep. And wasn't that the whole problem with set theory as a foundational idea?

bohm2 said:
If that is what you are arguing, would this still hold in a Machian-type universe?

It might help to define your view of a Machian universe. But I agree it has the right kind of contextual self-organisation. The parts anchor the whole, which in turn anchors the parts.

But I don't think the Machian approach is expressed in a way that allows you to dissolve its structure in the way needed.

The MN argument is de-constructive - based on subtraction to zero. But then that "zero" still clearly exists as a something.

So what you want instead is "de-mergence" - some way to dissolve or fade away both the contents and the container, the set along with its elements. To do that, you obviously need an emergent theory of both contents and container in the first place.
 
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  • #122
apeiron said:
It might help to define your view of a Machian universe. But I agree it has the right kind of contextual self-organisation. The parts anchor the whole, which in turn anchors the parts...But I don't think the Machian approach is expressed in a way that allows you to dissolve its structure in the way needed.

I'm not sure either but as I understand Mach's relationist position: without parts, there is no whole. So without the stuff in the bucket, the bucket could not exist. I'm not sure if this is an accurate representation of Mach but that's how I interpreted his view because according to Mach's principle, in absence of matter, space should not be able to exist. But I'm not sure if the latter implies the former?
 
  • #123
bohm2 said:
I'm not sure either but as I understand Mach's relationist position: without parts, there is no whole. So without the stuff in the bucket, the bucket could not exist. I'm not sure if this is an accurate representation of Mach but that's how I interpreted his view because according to Mach's principle, in absence of matter, space should not be able to exist. But I'm not sure if the latter implies the former?

Mach's bucket was more the claim that without some kind of reference frame context, how would the water in a spinning bucket know that it should have a centrifugal dip in its surface? Local inertia seemed a global contextual deal rather than a locally inherent property.

But it still left the mechanism of downward causation a msytery, as Davies notes in a reference you are familiar with too...

There are a few examples of clear-cut attempts at explicit whole-part causation theories in physics. One of these is Mach’s principle, according to which the force of inertia, experienced locally by a particle, derives from the particle’s gravitational interaction with all the matter in the universe. There is currently no very satisfactory formulation of Mach’s principle within accepted physical theory, although the attempt to construct one is by no means considered worthless, and once occupied the attention of Einstein himself.

http://www.ctnsstars.org/conferences/papers/The%20physics%20of%20downward%20causation.pdf

So, as far as the OP goes, Mach is not much of a help, although he was leaning towards the kind of ontology I like.

As I said at the start, a comprehensive paper on the options regarding "why anything" is...

Apostel, L. 1999. Why not Nothing? In World Views and the Problem of
Synthesis, ed. D. Aerts, H. Van Belle, and J. Van der Veken, 17-49.
The Yellow Book of "Einstein Meets Magritte". Kluwer Academic
Publishers.

It's not online, but if you are particularly interested in the literature, PM me an email and I can send you a scanned copy.
 
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  • #124
apeiron said:
As I said at the start, a comprehensive paper on the options regarding "why anything" is...

Apostel, L. 1999. Why not Nothing? In World Views and the Problem of

Thanks I read it last night even though I should be studying. It was a pretty extensive review of most of the positions on here but man, does he go way out there in Section 15: "Why not nothing? And Heidegger". I just don't see how taking any of these positions has any socio-political repersussions. For instance,

On the other hand, if the reason for existence is found in the organic unity of those possible worlds that are realized, its meaning and value will also lie in the consensus, the communication, the solidarity of mankind, culture and ethical system.

Where the heck did that come from?
 
  • #125
bohm2 said:
I just don't see how taking any of these positions has any socio-political repersussions.

I don't read Apostel as arguing that the "why anything" question must have ethical import, just that how it is framed/answered inevitably is going to reflect people's prior ethical concerns.

So some like to believe everything is essentially random, chance, meaningless, etc. Others that existence is purposeful, rational, etc. Our emotional baggage is going to get caught up in such an ultimate question. Apostel says this is why being willing to address the question is important - it serves to bring out our deepest beliefs into the open. The philosophers happy to tackle it are usually ones with an axiological agenda.

I don't particularly agree that is a good thing - unless we then manage to get beyond wishing for some certain kind of answer.
 
  • #126
bohm2 said:
“Why is there Something rather than Nothing” is “just the kind of question that we will be stuck with when we have a final theory [of physics]. … We will be left facing the irreducible mystery because whatever our theory is, no matter how mathematically consistent and logically consistent the theory is, there will always be the alternative that, well, perhaps there could have been nothing at all.” In modern physics, Weinberg explains, “the idea of empty space without anything at all, without fields, is inconsistent with the principles of quantum mechanics—[because] the [Heisenberg] uncertainty principle doesn’t allow a condition of empty space where fields are zero and unchanging.” But why, then, do we have quantum mechanics in the first place, with its fields and probabilities and ways of making things happen? “Exactly!” Weinberg says. “[Quantum mechanics] doesn’t answer the question, ‘Why do we live in a world governed by these laws?’… And we will never have an answer to that.” “Does that bother you?” I ask. “Yes,” Weinberg says wistfully. “I would like to have an answer to everything, but I’ve gotten used to the fact that I won’t.” Here’s how I see it: The primary questions people pose—Why the universe? Does God exist?—are important, sure, but they are not bedrock fundamental. “Why anything at all?” is the ultimate question.

Why there is something rather than nothing?

Think of all the possible ways that the world might be, down to every detail. There are infinitely many such possible ways. All these ways seem to be equally probable—which means that the probability of anyone of these infinite possibilities actually occurring seems to be zero, and yet one of them happened. “Now, there’s only one way for there to be Nothing, right?” There are no variants in Nothing; there being Nothing at all is a single state of affairs. And it’s a total state of affairs; that is, it settles everything—every possible proposition has its truth value settled, true or false, usually false, by there being Nothing. So if Nothing is one way for reality to be, and if the total number of ways for reality to be are infinite, and if all such infinite ways are equally probable so that the probability of anyone of them is [essentially] zero, then the probability of ‘there being Nothing’ is also [essentially] zero.” Because there are an infinite number of potential worlds, each specific world would have a zero probability of existing, and because Nothing is only one of these potential worlds—there can be only one kind of Nothing—the probabilily of Nothing existing is zero.

http://www.scienceandreligiontoday.com/2009/06/05/why-is-there-something-rather-than-nothing/

So he is arguing that if you have a lottery with an infinite number of combinations , there is only 1 number that corresponds to nothingness (the empty set). The chances of picking that number among all the others is essentially 0, so that isn't going to happen. I guess he's trying to say that the universe exists because existence is far more probable than non-existence.

"We can use the axiom of extensionality to show that there is only one empty set. Since it is unique we can name it. It is called the empty set (denoted by { } or ∅)."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_of_the_empty_set

Does the argument sound persuasive?



The argument is arbitrary. He would have to work much harder than that to get me to accept a specific probability for Nothing. As far as we know the probability of nothing is one and we lucked out bigtime.

The concept of probability in an infinite set is unintuitive for most people. All I can say is that I studied it in graduate school and it makes very good sense. Probability zero does not mean impossible and probability one does not mean certainty. There is no other reasonable way to do it. The fact that something exists does not imply that its probability is greater than zero. Get used to it.

As to why anything at all exists, I have no idea. But I think it is quite possible someone someday will develop a persuasive argument.
 
  • #127
apeiron said:
So some like to believe everything is essentially random, chance, meaningless, etc. Others that existence is purposeful, rational, etc.

"Random" simply means "unpredicatable." I see no dichotomy here.
 
  • #128
PatrickPowers said:
Probability zero does not mean impossible and probability one does not mean certainty. There is no other reasonable way to do it. The fact that something exists does not imply that its probability is greater than zero. Get used to it.

Do you understand the argument? If nothingness is deemed to be an ultimately simple state, then there is only one way it can be. Whereas somethingness would have an apparent infinity of ways of being. There is no obvious limit on its variety.

So the probablity of nothing is such that it almost surely does not exist, while the probability of something is such that it almost surely exists.

One may find all sorts of reasons to dispute the probabilities being assumed (is nothingness in fact infinitely varied? Is somethingness indeed somehow inherently limited). But this handwaving probability argument seems a good enough place to start a metaphysical discussion on the issue.

For your point to have any meaning here, you would have to show us first why somethingness must be limited to just one way of being.
 
  • #129
Nothingness it is not empty space it is not infinite or boundless variety whatever that means, and not even the potential of what is yet to come...
There´s nothing to nothingness...no thing to talk about.
The only valid use of nothingness as a concept intends to refer to the relative absence on something which exists and that it is not present in X space time frame.
 
  • #130
apeiron said:
Do you understand the argument? If nothingness is deemed to be an ultimately simple state, then there is only one way it can be. Whereas somethingness would have an apparent infinity of ways of being. There is no obvious limit on its variety.

So the probablity of nothing is such that it almost surely does not exist, while the probability of something is such that it almost surely exists.

One may find all sorts of reasons to dispute the probabilities being assumed (is nothingness in fact infinitely varied? Is somethingness indeed somehow inherently limited). But this handwaving probability argument seems a good enough place to start a metaphysical discussion on the issue.

For your point to have any meaning here, you would have to show us first why somethingness must be limited to just one way of being.

As best I can understand it, your argument is that each way of being is equally likely. Nothingness is one way of being. Somethingness includes virtually infinite ways of being. Therefore Somethingness is much more likely than nothingness.

The part I don't accept is that idea that each way of being is equally likely.
 
  • #131
The comparison of likelihood of probability in between nothingness and something is absurd !
Nothingness or shall we clarify, NO-THING, does not qualify as an object with property´s such as "being"/existing...and thus it is a false question !
It simply if it is the case that Something does exist then Nothingness cannot be conceptualized as an absolute any more...the assertion of the first immediately excludes the second...
By the same token not everything that exists necessarily had a beginning !
Thus if its is the case, as it seams, that the Universe had a beginning, to prevent an infinite regression in the causal chain, its final cause, must necessarily to not have had a beginning...from where it follows, and granting that the best known rational mechanical explanation in so far asserts a Multiverse as the cause of our Universe, a place where all possible worlds do exist, seams rather natural to conclude, that the Multiverse has no cause nor it did begun to exist...
 
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  • #132
Albuquerque said:
The comparison of likelihood of probability in between nothingness and something is absurd !
Nothingness or shall we clarify, NO-THING, does not qualify as an object with property´s such as "being"/existing...and thus it is a false question !
It simply if it is the case that Something does exist then Nothingness cannot be conceptualized as an absolute any more...the assertion of the first immediately excludes the second...
By the same token not everything that exists necessarily had a beginning !
Thus if its is the case, as it seams, that the Universe had a beginning, to prevent an infinite regression in the causal chain, its final cause, must necessarily to not have had a beginning...from where it follows, and granting that the best known rational mechanical explanation in so far asserts a Multiverse as the cause of our Universe, a place where all possible worlds do exist, seams rather natural to conclude, that the Multiverse has no cause nor it did begun to exist...

You are absolutely correct. The probability that nothing exists, given that something exists, is zero.
 
  • #133
...Someone should had explained to William Lane Craig that his second premiss on the Cosmological Argument for God is plain wrong...not everything that exists begins to exist !
 
  • #134
PatrickPowers said:
As best I can understand it, your argument is that each way of being is equally likely. Nothingness is one way of being. Somethingness includes virtually infinite ways of being. Therefore Somethingness is much more likely than nothingness.

The part I don't accept is that idea that each way of being is equally likely.

It's the OP rather than my argument. I don't personally believe a probability argument is going to offer any safe conclusions here.

That's why we discuss these things. To discover their weaknesses.

And you still seem to have it wrong. If nothingness did have one way of being, and somethingness an unlimited number of ways, then they are not equally likely. That is the basis of the OP. So at least you are right if you also don't view one vs infinity as equivalent.

And even if you were to take an a priori position that nothingness and somethingness should be treated initially as a simple 50/50 probability, there is still an argument against that. Here is Apostel's view, for instance.

In section 8 we applied the principle of sufficient reason. Its negative
counterpart is the principle of insufficient reason. We are familiar with
this from the fundamentals of the probability theory. "If n possibilities
are given and there is no sufficient reason to choose one of these in
preference to another, then they are all equally probable". If "el or e2
... or en" has a probability factor of 1 (or is even necessary), and if there
is no SR to make el preferable to e2, all e, will have a probability of l/n.

We shall apply this to the set of possible worlds. In the most unfavourable
case for the refutation of "Nothing exists", we place the empty worlds
(which we shall call L) on one side and the not empty worlds (which
we shall call B) on the other side. We consider the two sets as a unity
and assume there is no reason to choose empty in preference to not
empty, or not empty in preference to empty. Assuming that there have
to be "worlds", then L has a probability of 1/2 and B too.

This is an extreme case, however. There is only one way of being "empty" , whereas
there are many ways of being not empty. We can therefore assume that
there are 1, 2, 3, 4, ... n, infinity, different non-empty worlds. In each of these
assumptions, assuming that we have no reason to suppose that one of
these worlds is more probable than another, the principle of insufficient
reason determines that the probability of L always decreases (from 1/2 to
l/n) and that the probability of B always increases (from 1/2 to 1/3+1/3
to 1/4+ 1/ 4+ 1/4 etc.).

If an infinite number of possible worlds exist, the
probability of L will approach the limit zero. We shall now apply the
principle of insufficient reason to the totality of all these distributions of
probabilities over possible worlds. In one distribution L has a probability
of 1/2. In all the other distributions L has a lower probability, and in an
infinite number of distributions the probability of L is arbitrarily close
to the limit zero.

All this follows if we can apply the principle of insufficient reason
both to the individual 2, 3, ... n possible worlds and to the assumptions
about the number of possible worlds, and if our ignorance or ontological
indifference (or both) are so great that there is no known and/or existing
reason to choose one world in preference to another. In concrete terms,
all the foregoing follows from the fact that being can offer more variety
than nothingness.
 
  • #135
...you seam to have misunderstood my argument...my point was that there is no likelihood on anything in the first place, less alone a value for it...probability does not even apply to the problem once the first premiss, something, excludes the second, nothingness ...
 
  • #136
My position on this regard is that the idea that nothingness precedes something is absurd ! The very qualification of no-thing only makes sense by referring to the absence of something...the term excludes an absolute value in its very own definition...
 
  • #137
Albuquerque said:
My position on this regard is that the idea that nothingness precedes something is absurd ! The very qualification of no-thing only makes sense by referring to the absence of something...the term excludes an absolute value in its very own definition...

I agree - for quite different reasons most probably - that the idea of something arising from nothing is absurd. But that is a subtly different question from the OP.

The question here is about the possibility of there being just nothing - period. Now we know that isn't in fact the case. But was it ever even an honest possibility?

How can logic rule that out? Logic may rule out the kind of nothingness that spawns a somethingness, but it does not appear to rule out a nothingness of the kind that spawns...nothing.

This seems a rather coherent and self-consistent concept of nothingness - more so than the fecund kind. And the OP is about why we actually do have something rather than that kind of nothingness.
 
  • #138
apeiron said:
I agree - for quite different reasons most probably - that the idea of something arising from nothing is absurd. But that is a subtly different question from the OP.

The question here is about the possibility of there being just nothing - period. Now we know that isn't in fact the case. But was it ever even an honest possibility?

How can logic rule that out? Logic may rule out the kind of nothingness that spawns a somethingness, but it does not appear to rule out a nothingness of the kind that spawns...nothing.

This seems a rather coherent and self-consistent concept of nothingness - more so than the fecund kind. And the OP is about why we actually do have something rather than that kind of nothingness.

It seams to me that we must assume such kind of nothingness is possible in the first place and yet we don´t have any good reason to believe so...on its own premiss nothingness cannot be time dependent thus it does not follow a moment from where it can transit to something without contradicting its own conceptual terms...

(I apologise for my far from bright English which is not my first language)
 
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  • #139
Albuquerque said:
It seams to me that we must assume such kind of nothingness is possible in the first place and yet we don´t have any good reason to believe so...on its own premiss nothingness cannot be time dependent thus it does not follow a moment from where it can transit to something without contradicting its own conceptual terms...

(I apologise for my far from bright English which is not my first language)

They are still two separate arguments. In one, the debate is whether nothingness is itself a true possibility. In the other, the debate is whether nothingness actually existed (for a while, until something arose).

So in considering nothingness as a possibility, we can agree it must have no properties at all - no time, no space. It is not even an empty world.

And there is where the probability argument in fact slips up. It depends on some firm notion of countable worlds to get off the ground. And true nothingness could have nothing that smacks of a worldliness, such as change or development - any kind of temporal progression.

True nothingness, by its definition could never spawn an actual world. So the existence of something proves that there was never "a time of nothing". And yet is still seems an active possibility. There could still have been a nothing (as an alternative to our existence and how it came about).

To finally eliminate nothingness as even a possibility, further work is needed. We have to have an argument which says our world came about through this process, and logically this is the only kind of origin it could have had. And look, as the "complementary other" to existence, it exhausts all other possibilities. There is now no room for nothingness even as a logical possibility.

In other words, we employ the usual logic of metaphysical dichotomies.

Nothing vs something is a very weak kind of dichotomy. For the reasons discussed, it does not really work as the terms are not mutually exclusive and jointly exhaustive. No-thing is a simple negation, based on trying to subtract away all things (or actually, just the "some" that are taken to exist). And as you point out, we cannot finally subtract away time or space, or at least the potential for change, the potential for stability too, in any intelligible way. We can subtract to create an empty world, but not a non-world.

What we need is the kind of complex negation that is a strong dichotomy. In which the two polar alternatives cover every possibility and are definitely related by their very lack of relation - it is the total metaphysical exclusivity that exhausts the need for any further consideration of other possibilities.

As I said earlier in the thread, this leads us to some form of the arguments of Anaximander, Aristotle, Hegel and Peirce. Where what are opposed are vagueness and crispness, replacing the weaker thesis and antithesis of nothing and something.

The vague is a notion of a fundamental state that admits to development - the vague can always become something. As a state of pure potential, it is not a nothing (that is a possibility it excludes). But it is also as near a nothing as possible. Likewise, a pure potential can become anything. So it is also as near an everythingness as possible. It is an infinity of degrees of freedom as yet unconstrained, but by the same token, unformed.

Somethingness then becomes the emergence of constraints, of limits, of form. And the cause of this emergence employs all four of Aristotle's causes (whereas the "something from nothing" kinds of argument usually just appeal to some kind of local effective cause - a triggering event).

With the notion of vagueness, we can not only subtract away all things, we can also dissolve away any idea of space and time - so get rid of both the contents and the container to have less than an "empty world".

All sorts of things flow from this view. For instance, when now asking the question "why anything", the only alternative is that things might have remained forever vague. But this is illogical, forbidden, because constraints could also exist. The question can now be answered in terms of the inevitabilty of constraints.

Of course, you still have to construct that model. And people like Peirce, or Geoffrey Chew with his bootstrap approach to particle physics, have attempted such models. But at least the metaphysics gives a clear idea of what the model needs to be about - the development of global systems constraints.

So the Why Anything? argument is useful because it reveals the inadequacy of nothingness as a global concept (no-things can only be localised particulars of some crisply actual world). And even of effective causes as the way to get everything started (again, effective causes are only local and particular).
 
  • #140
apeiron said:
They are still two separate arguments. In one, the debate is whether nothingness is itself a true possibility. In the other, the debate is whether nothingness actually existed (for a while, until something arose).

So in considering nothingness as a possibility, we can agree it must have no properties at all - no time, no space. It is not even an empty world.

And there is where the probability argument in fact slips up. It depends on some firm notion of countable worlds to get off the ground. And true nothingness could have nothing that smacks of a worldliness, such as change or development - any kind of temporal progression.

True nothingness, by its definition could never spawn an actual world. So the existence of something proves that there was never "a time of nothing". And yet is still seems an active possibility. There could still have been a nothing (as an alternative to our existence and how it came about).

To finally eliminate nothingness as even a possibility, further work is needed. We have to have an argument which says our world came about through this process, and logically this is the only kind of origin it could have had. And look, as the "complementary other" to existence, it exhausts all other possibilities. There is now no room for nothingness even as a logical possibility.

In other words, we employ the usual logic of metaphysical dichotomies.

Nothing vs something is a very weak kind of dichotomy. For the reasons discussed, it does not really work as the terms are not mutually exclusive and jointly exhaustive. No-thing is a simple negation, based on trying to subtract away all things (or actually, just the "some" that are taken to exist). And as you point out, we cannot finally subtract away time or space, or at least the potential for change, the potential for stability too, in any intelligible way. We can subtract to create an empty world, but not a non-world.

What we need is the kind of complex negation that is a strong dichotomy. In which the two polar alternatives cover every possibility and are definitely related by their very lack of relation - it is the total metaphysical exclusivity that exhausts the need for any further consideration of other possibilities.

As I said earlier in the thread, this leads us to some form of the arguments of Anaximander, Aristotle, Hegel and Peirce. Where what are opposed are vagueness and crispness, replacing the weaker thesis and antithesis of nothing and something.

The vague is a notion of a fundamental state that admits to development - the vague can always become something. As a state of pure potential, it is not a nothing (that is a possibility it excludes). But it is also as near a nothing as possible. Likewise, a pure potential can become anything. So it is also as near an everythingness as possible. It is an infinity of degrees of freedom as yet unconstrained, but by the same token, unformed.

Somethingness then becomes the emergence of constraints, of limits, of form. And the cause of this emergence employs all four of Aristotle's causes (whereas the "something from nothing" kinds of argument usually just appeal to some kind of local effective cause - a triggering event).

With the notion of vagueness, we can not only subtract away all things, we can also dissolve away any idea of space and time - so get rid of both the contents and the container to have less than an "empty world".

All sorts of things flow from this view. For instance, when now asking the question "why anything", the only alternative is that things might have remained forever vague. But this is illogical, forbidden, because constraints could also exist. The question can now be answered in terms of the inevitabilty of constraints.

Of course, you still have to construct that model. And people like Peirce, or Geoffrey Chew with his bootstrap approach to particle physics, have attempted such models. But at least the metaphysics gives a clear idea of what the model needs to be about - the development of global systems constraints.

So the Why Anything? argument is useful because it reveals the inadequacy of nothingness as a global concept (no-things can only be localised particulars of some crisply actual world). And even of effective causes as the way to get everything started (again, effective causes are only local and particular).



Great post!

This is a murky area and probably a very difficult question but have you thought on ways to introduce time in this model, especially after SR and its blockworld view(the blockworld view seems to nullify all attempts at understanding).
 
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  • #141
apeiron said:
With the notion of vagueness, we can not only subtract away all things, we can also dissolve away any idea of space and time - so get rid of both the contents and the container to have less than an "empty world".


But isn't a relational or antisubstantivalist interpretation of spacetime capable of doing just that? I thought Mach favoured this approach but that's not important:

According to the relational theory…what we call “space” is simply the totality of actual (and perhaps possible) spatial relations between material objects and/or concrete material events. If there were no material objects and concrete material events, space would not exist, for the relata of the relations constitutive of space would not exist, just as a family tree cannot exist without there being people to bear the family relations to each other that are constitutive of the tree.

de Broglie waves as the “Bridge of Becoming” between quantum theory and relativity
http://arxiv.org/ftp/arxiv/papers/1107/1107.1678.pdf
 
  • #142
Maui said:
Great post!

This is a murky area and probably a very difficult question but have you thought on how to introduce time in this model, especially after SR and its blockworld view(the blockworld view seems to nullify all attempts at understanding).

Yes, indeed that is something I've put a lot of effort into. But it would have to have its own thread.

Suffice to say, I think a thermodynamic approach to time is the key - seeing it as a gradient of change which gets dissipated. So a phase transition model in which we go from one kind of equilbrium (the instability of vagueness) to the more stable one (of a heat death universe).

There is a lot of thinking in this direction. For example, Prigogine's The End of Certainty is a stimulating read here. As the Nobellist father of dissipative structure theory, that should be no surprise.

But you also have loop quantum gravity theorists going in the same direction, because they must also make time (and space) emerge from vagueness (their quantum foam). And people like Rovelli are coming out with thermal time models.

So there is certainly a literature to ground speculation here.

SR leads to a blockworld in the same way that QM leads to MWI. They are models that have no constraints to break their internal symmetries. Yet clearly, the world as we experience it is not like these models. Those claimed symmetries are in fact broken.

This does not falsify SR or QM - so long as the models do not make a claim to be complete. The something missing (the further contraints) may get put in by hand, but it is not that difficult in practice to do that. So the models don't get us into trouble. SR and QM are fine in themselves.

However, when doing metaphysics, that is when we have to talk about what the models omit, as well as what they include, and so what kinds of further deductions would be valid.

Blockworld is one of the false pathways of thought that arise if you "believe" some particular model too religiously. At least, IMO.
 
  • #143
bohm2 said:
But isn't a relational or antisubstantivalist interpretation of spacetime capable of doing just that? I thought Mach favoured this approach but that's not important:

Yes it should. That is what I said about loop approaches - they presume some kind of vagueness as their ground. The unoriented roil of a spin-foam, or whatever. Then space and time emerge from this via the evolution of constraints - a network of concrete relationships that solidify the generality of possibility into something specific and actual, with a definite history, and so a definite future.

This is also Peircean. It is all about self-creation via relationships. Contraints must arise as the "sum over histories" or least mean path. The least action principle is also the basis of dissipative structure theory and so a thermodynamic approach.

So Mach, Peirce, Rovelli, Chew. Many see the essential story. But science picks the low hanging fruit first (a further example of the least action principle, hey? :smile:).
 
  • #144
apeiron said:
SR leads to a blockworld in the same way that QM leads to MWI. They are models that have no constraints to break their internal symmetries. Yet clearly, the world as we experience it is not like these models. Those claimed symmetries are in fact broken.



Philosophically, I agree somewhat with your point, that it's always good to keep an open-mind and be aware that we are discussing models, yet, when discussing reality we only have our models to rest upon(it's been a tradition to regard everything else as empty talk). Yet, if we don't believe what they strongly suggest, it would seem that absolutely everyone on PF is talking mumbo-jumbo when they refer to reality. There is some truth, as far as it's attainable, that reality is relative to a frame of reference, as evidenced by clocks on the satellites orbiting the Earth and the experiments run at CERN which rely on the veracity of SR. So even if truths don't exist, it's more of a fact that reality is relative(and time is relative which lead to a blockworld), than it's a fact that reality is split at every quantum interaction(this is more of phantasy than a fact). I am far from dogmatic on it, but i'd put my money on the blockworld than on MWI any day of the week(even if it doesn't tell the whole story because no model is complete).

Time holds the key to most troubles in fundamental physics(that's Smolin's opinion in "The trouble with physics", as my own opinion is hardly worth much)
 
  • #145
apeiron said:
The vague is a notion of a fundamental state that admits to development - the vague can always become something. As a state of pure potential, it is not a nothing (that is a possibility it excludes). But it is also as near a nothing as possible. Likewise, a pure potential can become anything. So it is also as near an everythingness as possible. It is an infinity of degrees of freedom as yet unconstrained, but by the same token, unformed.

Somethingness then becomes the emergence of constraints, of limits, of form. And the cause of this emergence employs all four of Aristotle's causes (whereas the "something from nothing" kinds of argument usually just appeal to some kind of local effective cause - a triggering event).

With the notion of vagueness, we can not only subtract away all things, we can also dissolve away any idea of space and time - so get rid of both the contents and the container to have less than an "empty world".

All sorts of things flow from this view. For instance, when now asking the question "why anything", the only alternative is that things might have remained forever vague. But this is illogical, forbidden, because constraints could also exist. The question can now be answered in terms of the inevitabilty of constraints.

Of course, you still have to construct that model. And people like Peirce, or Geoffrey Chew with his bootstrap approach to particle physics, have attempted such models. But at least the metaphysics gives a clear idea of what the model needs to be about - the development of global systems constraints.

So the Why Anything? argument is useful because it reveals the inadequacy of nothingness as a global concept (no-things can only be localised particulars of some crisply actual world). And even of effective causes as the way to get everything started (again, effective causes are only local and particular).

As a layman I confess to be strongly stuck with the hard deterministic approach and with the concept of a block Universe as far as what I do understand these concepts intend to refer to which in itself is formally vague...
It follows I have trouble in conceptualising vagueness in any other way then the one who merely reports to the epistemological problem...thus vague for me refers to the temporary lack of awareness on the decision making constrains or good reasons that I might have towards some goal or some form of inquiry and not so much as reporting to a state in itself...in that sense I see it more as an "illusory effect" upon consciousness then an actual thing with its own "property´s"...I have trouble in imagining a true random process in motion without any sort of precise constrains as I understand motion itself as a form of means to ends, functions to systems and can´t conceive on any form of "behaviour" as being truly loose, although I wilfully admit complexity might strongly build that impression...
In the face of an interacting "indecision effect" from a system to another which is "alien" to its nature I am conceptually grounded with imagining lack of process/motion rather then an open ended form of process with no guidance...I don´t even know what it means motion with no guidance...as I am left wondering, what propels it ("its beingness") ? what vector goes nowhere in particular, or aims no goal ?
...again I hope the language barrier and the layman approach on the problem are not strong enough to prevent a fruitful exchange of ideas on such a hard problem...

Regards>Albuquerque
 
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  • #146
Post Scriptum -
...a block multiverse where all possibility´s of being are deterministically covered does not require any kind of intelligent designer with a volitional intention to justify the process of change...in fact "intention" and "volition" as I understand them, rather refer to the search for completion (first person perspective) then being the result of completion (holistic perspective, Being with no mind)...thus as I see it the need for "minds" is more the product of incomplete beings unfolding their process of completion then a final process where awareness is required...hope that settles the problem raised above !
 
  • #147
...one interesting exercise is to relate what has been said with Godel´s incompleteness as an argument against the mind of all minds (and any kind of mind for that purpose) who cannot justify its own volition or wilful intentional process from within itself, thus ending up being more then an argument just against computation or mathematics but also against free will, against conscience and against Gods at large...
 
  • #148
Maui said:
I am far from dogmatic on it, but i'd put my money on the blockworld than on MWI any day of the week(even if it doesn't tell the whole story because no model is complete).

I wouldn’t put my money on either model. Until we can answer such questions as below:

Russell held that there are “three grades of certainty. The highest grade belongs to my own percepts; the second grade to the percepts of other people; the third to events which are not percepts of anybody, “constructions of the mind established in the course of efforts to make sense of what we perceive.” “A piece of matter is a logical structure composed of [such] events,” he therefore concluded. We know nothing of the “intrinsic character” of such mentally constructed entities, so there is “no ground for the view that percepts cannot be physical events.” For science to be informative, it cannot be restricted to structural knowledge of such logical properties. Rather, “the world of physics [that we construct] must be, in some sense, continuous with the world of our perceptions, since it is the latter which supplies the evidence for the laws of physics.” The percepts that are required for this task—perhaps just meter-readings, Eddington had argued shortly before—“are not known to have any intrinsic character which physical events cannot have, since we do not know of any intrinsic character which could be incompatible with the logical properties that physics assigns to physical events.” Accordingly, “What are called ‘mental’ events…are part of the material of the physical world.” Physics itself seeks only to discover “the causal skeleton of the world, [while studying] percepts only in their cognitive aspect; their other aspects lie outside its purview”—though we recognize their existence, at the highest grade of certainty in fact. The basic conundrum recalls a classical dialogue between the intellect and the senses, in which the intellect says that color, sweetness, and the like are only convention while in reality there are only atoms and the void, and the senses reply: “Wretched mind, from us you are taking the evidence by which you would overthrow us? Your victory is your own fall."

THE MYSTERIES OF NATURE: HOW DEEPLY HIDDEN?
The journal of Philosophy, April 2009. P.181.

Unfortunately we will likely never have the answers to such questions. One can’t expect much from a cognitively-limited, arrogant, linguistic ground chimp like ourselves.

Edit: I'm starting to hate reading/writing my posts. They're too pessimistic/negative/misanthropic. I need to change my attitude.
 
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  • #149
...if anything my case is not against what has been labelled as naive realism but against minds as independent self justified willing systems...if minds cannot justify their own circumstances by which they would came to be what they are and thus through it the product of their will, then it reasons their so said free willing comes as an illusion from the process by which they circumstance is brought to existence in the specific way it is brought up...I decompose mind as an independent volitional entity and reduce it to a reactive deterministic necessary interacting process from reality with reality itself, whatever is reality..."subjectivity" in here translates to local perspectivism, and "observer" to am interacting system within the System who acknowledges and processes information accordingly with the conditions that such System provides, and which itself could not chose...a World without a mind, which cannot reason itself, or to repeat itself within itself...
 
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  • #150
bohm2 said:
Unfortunately we will likely never have the answers to such questions. One can’t expect much from a cognitively-limited, arrogant, linguistic ground chimp like ourselves.

Edit: I'm starting to hate reading/writing my posts. They're too pessimistic/negative/misanthropic. I need to change my attitude.

LOL, yes, be a glass half full guy instead. :smile:

The complaint in your extract is that we are just modellers of reality. Even our perceptions, our impressions, our measurements, are shaped by our ideas, our theories. We are cut off from the source of our impressions~ideas in some radical way.

But you can flip this around and see it as the crucial fact. It is because we are epistemically separated from reality that we can model it! You have to have mental distance to be able to imagine that reality could be other than what it appears, and thus see it more truly for what it is.

All this "ground chimp" stuff misses the glorious fact that our language ability does create a completely new realm of modelling for us. A chimp has to take its reality as brute fact. We get to stand back and wonder at it. Consider the other possibilities that put our actuality in its full context.

Our separation from reality is not an error to be deplored but a fortunate development that we should exploit to the full.
 

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