MHB Understanding Lusin's Theorem for $\mathbb{R}$ and Its Proof

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The discussion centers on Lusin's Theorem, which states that for any measurable function f from R to R, there exists a sequence of continuous functions (g_n) that converge to f almost everywhere. The proof begins by applying the Approximation Theorem to f, using simple functions that converge pointwise. It establishes a closed set F where f is continuous and shows that the measure of the complement is small. The proof concludes by defining a continuous extension g that matches f on F and is continuous on the entire real line. This confirms the applicability of Lusin's Theorem to measurable functions on R.
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Problem:
Let $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be measurable. Then there exists a sequence of continuous functions $(g_n)$ such that $limg_n(x)$ exists for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and $limg_n(x) = f(x)$ a.e. x.

Is this like Lusin's Theorem? Lusin's theorem for the real numbers? If so, how does this change the proof?
 
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Here is my proof (posting for completeness but if you have corrections feel free to comment!).

Proof:
Apply the Approximation Theorem to $f$.
Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of simple functions such that $f_n \rightarrow f$ point wise.
For every $n \in \Bbb{N}$, let
$F_n \subset E$ be closed such that $m(R - F_n) < \frac{\epsilon}{2^k}$ such that $f_n |_{F_n}$ is continuous.
(By Egorov's) $\implies \exists B \subset R$ such that $m(B) < \epsilon$ and $f_n \rightarrow f$ uniformly on $R - B$.
WLOG, assume $B$ is open.
Then $R - B$ is closed.
Let $F_0 = R - B$.

Claim: $f |_{F_\infty}$ is continuous.
A uniformly convergent sequence of continuous functions is continuous
$\implies f |_{F_\infty} = F_0 \cap \cap_{k}F_k$ is continuous.
Then,
$m(E - F_\infty) \leq \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}m(E - F_n) < 2\epsilon$
$\implies$ We've found $F \subset R$ closed such that $m(R - F) < \epsilon$ and $f |_F$ is continuous.

Now, consider our set F.
$\exists G_1, G_2,...$ open and pairwise disjoint such that $F^c = \cup_{i \in \Bbb{N}}G_i$.

Let $G_i = (a_i, b_i)$. Let,
$g(x) = $
$f(x), x \in F$
$(\frac{b_i - x}{b_i - a_i})f(a_i) + (\frac{x - a_i}{b_i - a_i})f(b_i), x \in (a_i, b_i)$

Then,
$f |_F$ continuous $\implies g |_F$ is continuous.
We extend $g$ so that it is also continuous on $F^c$ by the definition for $g$ given.
We conclude that,
$g : R \rightarrow R$ is continuous and $g |_F = f$.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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