# Understanding the buoyant force in archimedes principle

I'm really confused about the buoyant force.
What I've understood is that the buoyant force of an object is equal to the volume of the displaced fluid even if it is floating (not fully immersed in the fluid).
How can this be possible?
The volume of the object is the amount of water displaced when THE WHOLE OBJECT IS IMMERSED right??

I would be really thankful if someone could clarify this
Thank you!

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Doc Al
Mentor
The buoyant force equals the weight of the displaced fluid. When a body floats, the volume of displaced fluid is less than the volume of the object itself. If that same body is fully submerged, the buoyant force will be greater since it will displace more fluid.

Oh okay, and I can use the same formula for both cases? (p*V*g)

Doc Al
Mentor
Oh okay, and I can use the same formula for both cases? (p*V*g)
Sure. As long as you use the correct volume of fluid displaced.

Thank you so much!!