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Understanding the buoyant force in archimedes principle

  1. Feb 11, 2012 #1
    I'm really confused about the buoyant force.
    What I've understood is that the buoyant force of an object is equal to the volume of the displaced fluid even if it is floating (not fully immersed in the fluid).
    How can this be possible?
    The volume of the object is the amount of water displaced when THE WHOLE OBJECT IS IMMERSED right??

    I would be really thankful if someone could clarify this
    Thank you!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 11, 2012 #2

    Doc Al

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    Staff: Mentor

    The buoyant force equals the weight of the displaced fluid. When a body floats, the volume of displaced fluid is less than the volume of the object itself. If that same body is fully submerged, the buoyant force will be greater since it will displace more fluid.
     
  4. Feb 11, 2012 #3
    Oh okay, and I can use the same formula for both cases? (p*V*g)
     
  5. Feb 11, 2012 #4

    Doc Al

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    Staff: Mentor

    Sure. As long as you use the correct volume of fluid displaced.
     
  6. Feb 11, 2012 #5
    Thank you so much!!
     
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