Understanding the Phazor Equation: I_s(t)=sin(t)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the transformation of the signal I_s(t) = sin(t) into its phasor representation. The equation I_L(1 - CL + jCR + jcz) = I_s is analyzed, leading to the substitution of j with I_s. The transformation process involves using the formula I_s = A cos(ωt + φ) and converting it to phasor form, resulting in I_s = 1e^{-jπ/2}. The conclusion drawn is that I_s is represented as j due to Euler's formula, where e^{jθ} equals cos(θ) + j sin(θ).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of phasor representation in electrical engineering
  • Familiarity with Euler's formula and complex numbers
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities, specifically sin and cos transformations
  • Basic concepts of electrical circuits and impedance
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Euler's formula in electrical engineering
  • Learn about phasor analysis in AC circuit theory
  • Research the implications of impedance in RLC circuits
  • Explore the relationship between time-domain signals and their frequency-domain representations
USEFUL FOR

Electrical engineers, students studying circuit analysis, and anyone interested in the mathematical representation of AC signals will benefit from this discussion.

electron2
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for this signal
[tex] I_s(t)=sin(t)[/tex]
i have this equation
[itex] I_L(1-CL+jCR+jcz)=I_s<br /> [/tex]<br /> then the next line is<br /> [tex] I_L(1-CL+jCR+jcz)=j[/tex]<br /> <br /> why they substitute j with I_s[/itex]
 
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[tex] sin(t)=cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-t)=cos(t-\frac{\pi}{2})[/tex]
the formula of the signal is
[tex] Is=Acos(\omega t+\phi)[/tex]
then we transform it to the phasor representation formula
[tex] Is=Ae^{j\phi}[/tex]
so we get
[tex] Is=1e^{-j\frac{\pi}{2}}[/tex]
and when we look at this expression as oilers formula we get
the Is=-j

so why its written Is=j
?
 
electron2 said:
[tex] sin(t)=cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-t)=cos(t-\frac{\pi}{2})[/tex]
the formula of the signal is
[tex] Is=Acos(\omega t+\phi)[/tex]
then we transform it to the phasor representation formula
[tex] Is=Ae^{j\phi}[/tex]
so we get
[tex] Is=1e^{-j\frac{\pi}{2}}[/tex]
and when we look at this expression as oilers formula we get
the Is=-j

so why its written Is=j
?
[tex]e^{j\theta} = cos(\theta) + j sin(\theta)[/tex]
for [tex]\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
[tex]e^{j\frac{\pi}{2}} = cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) + j sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0 + j.1 = j[/tex]
 

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