Understanding the Product Rule in Lie Groups: How Does it Differ from Calculus?

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Monocles
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Out of curiosity, how does the product rule work in Lie groups? I ended up needing it because I approached a problem incorrectly and then saw that the product rule was unnecessary, but it seems to create a strange scenario. For example:

Consider a Lie group [tex]G[/tex] and two smooth curves [tex]\gamma_1, \gamma_2: [-1, 1] \rightarrow G[/tex] such that [tex]\gamma_1(0) = \gamma_2(0) = e[/tex]. Let's say we wish to compute the tangent vector of the curve [tex]\gamma_1 \gamma_2[/tex] at [tex]e[/tex]. Then,

[tex] (\gamma_1 \gamma_2)^\prime(0) = \gamma_1(0) \gamma_2^\prime(0) + \gamma_1^\prime(0) \gamma_2(0)[/tex]

But, now we are multiplying a group element by a vector. This would work for, say, [tex]GL_n (\mathbb{R})[/tex], but not for Lie groups in general. So, I am guessing that the product rule works differently than it does in calculus.

There is even more confusion when you consider the tangent vector at some point other than [tex]e[/tex]!

EDIT: I realized that the product of two curves might not be injective, so let's assume that it is.
 
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The product rule works provided you understand [tex](\gamma_1 \gamma_2)^\prime(0) = \gamma_1(0) \gamma_2^\prime(0)[/tex]

as acting on the tangent vector by the left translation. The map

[tex]L_{g_1(0)}:\, g\mapsto g_1(0)g[/tex] is a diffemorphism. Its derivative [tex]dL_{g_1(0)}[/tex] maps, in particular, the tangent space at [tex]g_2(0)[/tex] to the tangent space at [tex]g_1(0)g_2(0)[/tex]. Similarly for the right translation [tex]R_{g_2(0)}:\,g\mapsto gg_2(0).[/tex]
 
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