Understanding the Relationship Between Energy and Frequency

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Energy is directly proportional to frequency, as evidenced by the photoelectric effect, where the maximum energy of ejected electrons correlates linearly with light frequency, with Planck's constant as the slope. This relationship is grounded in experimental results and can be explained through principles of special relativity. A photon’s energy and frequency maintain a constant ratio, even under different observational conditions, such as redshift. The discussion suggests that similar principles may apply to other particles, like electrons, although further exploration is encouraged. Understanding this relationship is crucial for comprehending fundamental concepts in quantum mechanics and wave-particle duality.
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Why is energy proportional to frequency? Does this question have an answer or is it a fundamental thing that just happens?
 
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jd12345 said:
Why is energy proportional to frequency? Does this question have an answer or is it a fundamental thing that just happens?

It is an experimental result. When you measure the maximum energy of ejected electrons in the photoelectric effect experiment and plot it against the frequency of the light that caused the emission (see example here), you get a straight line with a slope that is Planck's constant h. Applying the formula for a straight line and taking the binding energy of the electron into account, the equation of the line is E=h√.
 
hi jd12345! :smile:
jd12345 said:
Why is energy proportional to frequency?

for light, it's a straightforward result from special relativity …

(i'll use unit with h = c = 1)

a photon moving in the x-direction with frequency eα and energy E is a wave, with phase 2πeα(t-x) and energy-momentum 4-vector (E,E,0,0)

a second observer moving in the x-direction with rapidity eβ will see the light red-shifted, with phase 2πeα-β(t-x) and energy-momentum 4-vector (Eeα-β,Eeα-β,0,0)

so energy divided by frequency is a constant for that particular photon :wink:

(there's probably a similar proof for electrons etc … would anyone else like to have a go at that?)
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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