Understanding the Simple Proof of sin^2θ = 1-cos^2θ in Trigonometry

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding a trigonometric identity, specifically the proof of sin²θ = 1 - cos²θ. The original poster expresses confusion regarding a particular step in the proof involving the manipulation of fractions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the transition from (r² - x²)/r² to 1 - (x/r)², questioning their reasoning about cancellation in fractions. Other participants provide insights into the correct approach to handling the expression and emphasize the importance of factoring.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's confusion, offering clarifications and examples to enhance understanding. There is a productive exchange of ideas regarding the manipulation of algebraic expressions, with some participants contributing additional insights into the properties of fractions.

Contextual Notes

The original poster is a high school student working through a calculus book, indicating a learning environment where foundational concepts in trigonometry and algebra are being explored.

claytonh4
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Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.
 
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claytonh4 said:
Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.
 
claytonh4 said:

Homework Statement



Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:


Homework Equations



sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The Attempt at a Solution



The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
[itex](r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}[/itex]
 
Mark44 said:
Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.

Oh ok I see. So if I want to employ that train of thought I need to expand the problem so it will work? Thank you for your help, that makes more sense now.
 
azizlwl said:
r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
[itex](r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}[/itex]

Ok that makes more sense. I think I was looking at it too simplistically. When I saw the 1 in the equation, I wanted to try to cancel, but I didn't account for dividing there. Thanks for your help.
 
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

[tex]\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}[/tex]
 
Simon Bridge said:
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

[tex]\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}[/tex]

Thank you! I think that's an excellent example of how that dividing property works.
 
As the Heart of Gold doors' say, "pleased to be of service."
 

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