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In an article I'm reading, the author defines an operator as below:
<br /> \hat{U}_{CNOT}(\theta)=\exp{(-i \theta \hat{U}_{CNOT})}=\hat{1} \cos{\theta}-i \hat{U}_{CNOT} \sin{\theta}<br />
Where \hat{U}_{CNOT} is the controlled not gate(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Controlled_NOT_gate).
Then the operator is applied to a state of the form (\alpha |0\rangle+\beta|1\rangle) \otimes |\psi\rangle and the resulting state is:
<br /> (\alpha e^{-i \theta} |0\rangle+\beta \cos{\theta} |1\rangle)\otimes |\psi\rangle-i \beta \sin{\theta} |1\rangle \otimes (\hat{\sigma}_x |\psi\rangle)<br />
where \hat{\sigma}_x=\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 0&1\\<br /> 1&0<br /> \end{pmatrix}
Then the author says:
Thanks
<br /> \hat{U}_{CNOT}(\theta)=\exp{(-i \theta \hat{U}_{CNOT})}=\hat{1} \cos{\theta}-i \hat{U}_{CNOT} \sin{\theta}<br />
Where \hat{U}_{CNOT} is the controlled not gate(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Controlled_NOT_gate).
Then the operator is applied to a state of the form (\alpha |0\rangle+\beta|1\rangle) \otimes |\psi\rangle and the resulting state is:
<br /> (\alpha e^{-i \theta} |0\rangle+\beta \cos{\theta} |1\rangle)\otimes |\psi\rangle-i \beta \sin{\theta} |1\rangle \otimes (\hat{\sigma}_x |\psi\rangle)<br />
where \hat{\sigma}_x=\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 0&1\\<br /> 1&0<br /> \end{pmatrix}
Then the author says:
Now my problem is that I can't understand how that happens. I don't know how to work with \hat{Z}_A(\theta)\hat{U}_{CNOT}(\theta).I'll appreciate any suggestion.The relative phase e^{i \theta} between |0\rangle and |1\rangle is a complication in the calculations that will follow.To avoid this problem, instead of \hat{U}_{CNOT}(\theta),we will use interactions of the form \hat{Z}_A(\theta) \hat{U}_{CNOT}(\theta),where\hat{Z}_A(\theta)=(\exp{(i \hat{\sigma}_z \theta/2)}\otimes \hat{1})...The single-bit rotation exactly undoes the extra relative phase produced by \hat{U}_{CNOT},while changing nothing else.
Thanks