Understanding the Voltage Equation for a Separately Excited DC Motor

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The voltage equation for a separately excited DC motor is expressed as Vt = Ea + IaRa, where Vt is the supply voltage, Ea is the induced armature voltage, and IaRa represents the voltage drop across the armature resistance. There is confusion regarding whether Va refers to Ea or IaRa, but it is clarified that Va should equal Vt. The discussion emphasizes that the total voltage across the armature, Va, must account for both the induced voltage and the voltage drop due to resistance. Thus, the relationship between these variables is critical for understanding the motor's operation. The conclusion reinforces that Va and Vt are indeed equal in this context.
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The Attempt at a Solution


For the textbook diagram of a separately excited dc motor, the voltage equation for the armature circuit is given as

##V_t=E_a + I_aR_a##

But in the class notes, it says ##V_t = V_a##
Firstly, I don't know if the ##V_a## refers to the induced armature voltage ##E_a## or the ##I_aR_a##.

But either way, according to the voltage equation, shouldn't the two not be equal?
 

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From the hand-drawn diagram, it's pretty clear that ##V_a = E_a + I_aR_a##.
 
The coils of the armature is represented by a pure inductor and a resistor in the equivalent circuit.
Going round the circuit we come to the conclusion that the supply voltage Vt is

Vt = Ea + Ia Ra

where Ea is the voltage over the pure inductor.
Next they introduce a "new" variable, the voltage drop over the armature as a whole Va .
Clearly this has to be equal to the supply voltage Vt .
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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