 #1
chwala
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 TL;DR Summary

I am currently looking at this theorem...basically it states that if you have a given sequence that is bounded and infinite then there exists atleast one limit point. Looking at the attached...i would like to know how the author concludes that the subsequence;
##{1,1,1,...}## converges to ##1##.
I guess that should follow from previous step...unless there is a mistake.
Find link here;https://math.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Analysis/Book%3A_Real_Analysis_(Boman_and_Rogers)/07%3A_Inter