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If I have random variable, P ~ U(1,2), am I correct in thinking that xP ~ U(1,2) also ? (where x is some constant), or does the range change?
Thanks.
Thanks.
The discussion centers on the properties of uniformly distributed random variables, specifically examining the transformation of a uniformly distributed random variable P ~ U(1,2) when multiplied by a constant x. Participants explore whether the resulting variable xP retains the same uniform distribution or if its range changes.
Participants express differing views on whether xP retains the uniform distribution U(1,2) or transforms to U(x,2x). There is no consensus on the outcome of this transformation.
Participants rely on specific assumptions about the constant x (e.g., x > 0) and the nature of the uniform distribution, which may affect their conclusions. The discussion does not resolve the implications of these assumptions.
EnumaElish said:Since P is U(1, 2), Prob(P < p) = p - 1. Note Prob(P < 1) = 1 - 1 = 0 and Prob(P < 2) = 2 - 1 = 1.
Assume x > 0, then Prob(xP < p) = Prob(P < p/x) = ...
Does this help?