Swapnil
- 459
- 6
When a em-wave goes from free space to a lossless medium with a [tex]n > 1[/tex], why is it that the wave impedence [tex]\eta[/tex] becomes smaller i.e. [tex]\eta = \frac{\eta_0} { n}[/tex]. I know why from the math but I how to get to this result just by some intuitive reasoning?