Use Wronskian to show only 2 indepndent solutions of 2nd order ODE

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on using the Wronskian to demonstrate that a second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) of the form $y'' + P(x)y' + Q(x)y = 0$ cannot have three linearly independent solutions. The Wronskian is constructed using three solutions $y_1$, $y_2$, and $y_3$, and its determinant is calculated. The conclusion drawn is that if the Wronskian vanishes for all x, it implies that the three solutions cannot be independent, confirming that only two independent solutions exist for the given ODE.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of second-order ordinary differential equations (ODEs)
  • Familiarity with the concept of the Wronskian and its properties
  • Knowledge of linear independence in the context of functions
  • Basic calculus, including differentiation and determinants
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Wronskian in detail
  • Learn about the existence and uniqueness theorems for ODEs
  • Explore examples of second-order ODEs and their solutions
  • Investigate the implications of linear dependence and independence in function spaces
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Mathematicians, physics students, and anyone studying differential equations who seeks to understand the implications of the Wronskian in determining the independence of solutions to second-order ODEs.

ognik
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Given standard ODE $ y'' + P(x)y' + Q(x)y=0 $, use wronskian to show it cannot have 3 independent sltns. Assume a 3rd solution and show W vanishes for all x.

so 1st row of W = {$ {y}_{1}, {y}_{2},{y}_{3} $}, 2nd row is 1st derivatives, 3rd row is 2nd derivatives.

I can find the determinate, W (should it be written as |W| ?) = $ y_1 y'_2y''_3 - y_1y''_2y'_3 - y_2y'_1y''_3 + y_2y''_1y'_3 + y_3y'_1y''_2 - y_3y''_1y'_2 $

I know that $ y_1y'_2 - y_2y'_1 \ne 0 $(IE $y_3$ is the 'other' solution), so I grouped the above into $ y''_3(y_1y'_2 - y_2y'_1) - y''_2(y_1y'_3 - y_3y'_1) - y''_1(y_2y'_3 - y_3y'_1) $. The terms in brackets are Wronskians and if the 3 solutions are linearly independent, then they cannot=0. It would be convenient then, to have the 2nd derivatives = 0, but I can't argue that as the y(x)'s could have $x^2$ terms...

I have tried various other combinations, but most of them just transform to expansions by a different row/column. Can anyone give me a hint please?
 
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Assuming your Wronskian is correct, maybe you could substitute $y_2''=-P(x) y_2'-Q(x) y_2$, and the same for the other two solutions?
 
... and they all cancel neatly, I wish I could think of these obvious-in-retrospect approaches.
 
Well, in this case, what led me to that suggestion was that, so far, you had not used the fact that the functions were solutions. That had to be important.
 
I also thought it important, but instead thought that suggested using the Wronskian, I think with a lot more practice it gets better, its just frustrating when missing something obvious costs me many hours ... without this forum I suspect I would have given up by now, so I really appreciate all the help!
 

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