Using Impulse to Solve For the Final Velocity

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the final velocity of a bullet using the impulse-momentum theorem. The equation provided is F(t) = Fc(1+e^(-100t)), with Fc set at 100N and the bullet's mass at 0.02 kg. Participants clarify that the change in momentum (Δp) is determined by integrating the force function F(t) over time, rather than equating F(t) directly to MVf. The integral of F(t) must be computed to find the impulse, which is essential for determining the final velocity.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of impulse-momentum theorem
  • Familiarity with calculus, specifically integration
  • Knowledge of force as a function of time
  • Basic physics concepts related to mass and velocity
NEXT STEPS
  • Learn how to compute integrals of force functions in physics
  • Study the relationship between impulse and momentum
  • Explore examples of applying the impulse-momentum theorem in real-world scenarios
  • Investigate the effects of varying force functions on final velocity calculations
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Students in physics, educators teaching mechanics, and anyone interested in understanding the application of calculus in solving motion problems.

spacestrudel
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Homework Statement
What is the final velocity of a bullet given that its change in time is 0.1 seconds and F(t) = Fc(1+e^(-1the00t). The mass of the bullet is 20g.
Relevant Equations
Mvf - mvo = change in p = the integral of Fdt
Hi there,

Just asking a logistics question since I want to be sure I am approaching this problem correctly.

My professor showed me an example of a bullet being fired from a barrel, given its initial velocity was 0. The change in time was 0.1 seconds. The mass of the bullet is 0.02 kg. The equation he gave is F(t) = Fc(1+e(-100t)), where Fc = 100N.

Since we know that MVf - MV0 = Δp = ∫ Fdt, doesn't this mean I can set the given function equal to MVf, since it is already force as a function of time (also since we know the initial velocity equals zero)? Or am I missing something?

Only asking because I can't tell if it's just a ridiculously easy problem or I'm missing something.
 
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spacestrudel said:
doesn't this mean I can set the given function equal to MVf
You mean the integral of the function, right?
 
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haruspex said:
You mean the integral of the function, right?
Does it still have to be the integral of that given function even though it is already in terms of F(t)? Because he said that the change in momentum was just the integral of F. So, since I have F(t) - isn't that technically the integral?
 
spacestrudel said:
Does it still have to be the integral of that given function even though it is already in terms of F(t)? Because he said that the change in momentum was just the integral of F. So, since I have F(t) - isn't that technically the integral?
No, what makes you think that? F(t) is the function, ∫F(t).dt is its integral. If F(t)=2t then its integral is t2+constant.
 
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haruspex said:
No, what makes you think that? F(t) is the function, ∫F(t).dt is its integral. If F(t)=2t then its integral is t2+constant.
Got’cha! I don’t know, haha I was just taking the stuff he wrote on the board literally. Okay! So take the integral of the function given to then use to find the impulse ! Thank you.
 

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