Using Impulse to Solve For the Final Velocity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a physics problem involving impulse and momentum, specifically related to a bullet being fired from a barrel. The original poster presents a scenario with given parameters, including mass and force as a function of time.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to relate the force function directly to the final momentum, questioning whether the function can be equated to the final velocity. Other participants clarify that the integral of the force function must be considered to find the change in momentum.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the relationship between force and impulse. Clarifications have been made regarding the necessity of integrating the force function to determine the impulse, indicating a productive exchange of ideas.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions and relationships between force, impulse, and momentum, with some uncertainty about the interpretation of the professor's instructions. There is an emphasis on ensuring the correct application of the integral in the context of the problem.

spacestrudel
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Homework Statement
What is the final velocity of a bullet given that its change in time is 0.1 seconds and F(t) = Fc(1+e^(-1the00t). The mass of the bullet is 20g.
Relevant Equations
Mvf - mvo = change in p = the integral of Fdt
Hi there,

Just asking a logistics question since I want to be sure I am approaching this problem correctly.

My professor showed me an example of a bullet being fired from a barrel, given its initial velocity was 0. The change in time was 0.1 seconds. The mass of the bullet is 0.02 kg. The equation he gave is F(t) = Fc(1+e(-100t)), where Fc = 100N.

Since we know that MVf - MV0 = Δp = ∫ Fdt, doesn't this mean I can set the given function equal to MVf, since it is already force as a function of time (also since we know the initial velocity equals zero)? Or am I missing something?

Only asking because I can't tell if it's just a ridiculously easy problem or I'm missing something.
 
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spacestrudel said:
doesn't this mean I can set the given function equal to MVf
You mean the integral of the function, right?
 
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haruspex said:
You mean the integral of the function, right?
Does it still have to be the integral of that given function even though it is already in terms of F(t)? Because he said that the change in momentum was just the integral of F. So, since I have F(t) - isn't that technically the integral?
 
spacestrudel said:
Does it still have to be the integral of that given function even though it is already in terms of F(t)? Because he said that the change in momentum was just the integral of F. So, since I have F(t) - isn't that technically the integral?
No, what makes you think that? F(t) is the function, ∫F(t).dt is its integral. If F(t)=2t then its integral is t2+constant.
 
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haruspex said:
No, what makes you think that? F(t) is the function, ∫F(t).dt is its integral. If F(t)=2t then its integral is t2+constant.
Got’cha! I don’t know, haha I was just taking the stuff he wrote on the board literally. Okay! So take the integral of the function given to then use to find the impulse ! Thank you.
 

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