Using Intermediate Value Theorem to prove # of polynomial roots

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The discussion centers on using the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVT) to demonstrate that an Nth-degree polynomial can have no more than N roots. It highlights that the derivative of an Nth-degree polynomial is an (N-1)-th degree polynomial, which is crucial for understanding how many times the polynomial can change direction. The conversation explains that a polynomial of odd degree must have at least one root and that the number of direction changes relates to the number of roots. An example with a quadratic polynomial illustrates how to apply this reasoning, showing that it can change direction once, leading to at most two crossings of the x-axis. Overall, the discussion provides insights into the proof's structure and encourages further exploration of the topic.
KingNothing
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I've heard there's a proof out there of this, basically that (I think) you can use the intermediate value theorem to prove that an Nth-degree polynomial has no more than N roots.

I'm not in school anymore, just an interested engineer. Does anyone know where I can find this proof or any really strong hints on how to do it myself? I've been out of it for a while and I'm rusty.
 
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well the crux of any such proof is going to be that the derivative of an Nth-degree polynomial is going to be an (N-1)-th degree polynomial.

you don't even need limits for this, you can just define a derivative formally using the power rule.

why derivatives? because, in general, all one can say at the outset, is that a polynomial of odd degree has at least one root. to bring the IVT to bear, one has to find out how many times a polynomial p(x) can "change direction", that is, when its slope changes sign.

for an partial example of how this becomes an induction proof:

suppose p(x) is of degree 2, so that p(x) = ax2 + bx + c. then p'(x) = 2ax + b, (and by assumption, a ≠ 0), so p'(x) has one root (-b/(2a), in fact).

this means that p(x) changes direction exactly once (for higher degrees it becomes "at most n-1 times" because some of the "humps" might not exist (f(x) = x3 doesn't have any, for example), so it can cross the x-axis at most twice (once going up, once going down).

you should be able to generalize, and make this a bit more rigorous, from this little bit.
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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