- #1
asimov42
- 378
- 4
After some reading, I'm quite confused about the vacuum state in interacting QFT. I've read the @A. Neumaier post on "The Vacuum Fluctuation Myth," where he notes that "bare quantum field theory with a cutoff, the vacuum is a complicated multiparticle state depending on the cutoff – though in a way that it diverges when the cutoff is removed, so that nothing physical remains." This is for an interacting theory. There have also been short, relevant previous discussions here and here, also regarding interacting theories.
In non-interacting theory, the vacuum state an eigenstate of the particle number operator (eigenvalue zero). Ok, all good. Now, for an interacting theory, you introduce a cutoff allowing you to work in Fock space, and end up with a complicated superposition of bare-particle Fock states... so, now if I were to apply the particle number operator repeatedly in this case, I would get random numbers of bare particles ... but we don't observe this (if we did, it would imply the vacuum contained particles).
Here are my questions:
1. As @A. Neumaier alludes to above - if we remove the cutoff and apply renormalization, does the complex multiparticle state disappear? It seems yes, but in another post @Avodyne noted that this my not possible be in 3 + 1D?
2. Does the physical vacuum of interacting QFT then always contain zero physical particles? That is, is the physical vacuum state an eigenstate of the particle number operator, with eigenvalue zero? (using the interacting Hamiltonian of course)
In non-interacting theory, the vacuum state an eigenstate of the particle number operator (eigenvalue zero). Ok, all good. Now, for an interacting theory, you introduce a cutoff allowing you to work in Fock space, and end up with a complicated superposition of bare-particle Fock states... so, now if I were to apply the particle number operator repeatedly in this case, I would get random numbers of bare particles ... but we don't observe this (if we did, it would imply the vacuum contained particles).
Here are my questions:
1. As @A. Neumaier alludes to above - if we remove the cutoff and apply renormalization, does the complex multiparticle state disappear? It seems yes, but in another post @Avodyne noted that this my not possible be in 3 + 1D?
2. Does the physical vacuum of interacting QFT then always contain zero physical particles? That is, is the physical vacuum state an eigenstate of the particle number operator, with eigenvalue zero? (using the interacting Hamiltonian of course)