jostpuur
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Assuming I've understood some claims correctly, having defined the canonical momenta with equation
[tex] p_k = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}_k},[/tex]
we can solve the velocities as functions
[tex] \dot{q}_k(q_1,\ldots,q_n,p_1,\ldots, p_n)[/tex]
precisely when the determinant
[tex] \textrm{det}\Big(\Big(\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial \dot{q}_k\partial\dot{q}_{k'}}\Big)_{k,k'\in\{1,\ldots,n\}}\Big)[/tex]
is non-zero. Why is this the case? The result looks reasonable, but I have difficulty seeing where this is coming from.
[tex] p_k = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}_k},[/tex]
we can solve the velocities as functions
[tex] \dot{q}_k(q_1,\ldots,q_n,p_1,\ldots, p_n)[/tex]
precisely when the determinant
[tex] \textrm{det}\Big(\Big(\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial \dot{q}_k\partial\dot{q}_{k'}}\Big)_{k,k'\in\{1,\ldots,n\}}\Big)[/tex]
is non-zero. Why is this the case? The result looks reasonable, but I have difficulty seeing where this is coming from.