Verify that this kinetic energy operator is Hermitian

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on verifying the Hermitian nature of the kinetic energy operator in quantum mechanics. The user attempts to demonstrate this using integration by parts, specifically with the expression $$KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \int\Psi_{m}^{*} \Psi_{n}^{''} dx$$. Key errors identified include incorrect choices for the functions ##u## and ##v'## during integration by parts, as well as overlooking the necessity of treating the integral as definite. The conversation emphasizes the importance of careful arithmetic and integration techniques in quantum mechanics.

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sa1988
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Homework Statement



Not actually a homework question but is an exercise in my lecture notes.

Homework Equations



I'm following this which demonstrates that the momentum operator is Hermitian:

103s7eg.png


The Attempt at a Solution

$$KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \int\Psi_{m}^{*} \Psi_{n}^{''} dx $$
$$ by parts: \int uv' = uv - \int vu' $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - \int \Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{'*} dx \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - (\Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{*} - \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx) \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx $$
$$KE_{mn} = KE_{mn}$$

:oldconfused::oldconfused::oldconfused:

Can anyone see the gaping error in my working?

Thanks :oldsmile:
 
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sa1988 said:
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - \int \Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{'*} dx \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - (\Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{*} - \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx) \Big) $$
The second time you are doing the integration by parts, you are making the wrong choice for ##u## and ##v'##.

Also, don't forget that this is a definite integral.
 
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DrClaude said:
The second time you are doing the integration by parts, you are making the wrong choice for ##u## and ##v'##.

Also, don't forget that this is a definite integral.

Thanks for this. Relieving to see it was a fairly simple arithmetic error, but worrying that my eyes continually didn't pick up on it...

Pretty late in the evening now and I don't have any pen or paper handy for going over it all, but I'll check it out tomorrow.

Cheers :)
 
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you
 
Louis419 said:
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you

Okay, but maybe you are two years too late!

Personally, I would have used the Hermitian property of ##p## to show the Hermitian property of ##p^2## directly.
 
Louis419 said:
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you
We don't give full solutions at PhysicsForums. Try it yourself and create a thread with your question if you are having some problems. We will help you get to the solution.
 

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