Verify that this kinetic energy operator is Hermitian

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around verifying the Hermitian nature of the kinetic energy operator in quantum mechanics. The original poster references lecture notes and attempts to demonstrate this property through integration by parts, focusing on the mathematical formulation of the kinetic energy operator.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the Hermitian property through integration by parts but expresses uncertainty about potential errors in their calculations. Some participants question the choices made for the integration variables and the nature of the integral involved.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's attempts, providing feedback on specific steps in the calculations. There is a recognition of a possible arithmetic error, and some participants suggest revisiting the integration choices. The conversation reflects a collaborative effort to clarify the reasoning without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

One participant notes the importance of considering the definite nature of the integral, which may influence the interpretation of the results. There are also requests for complete solutions, which are met with reminders about the forum's guidelines against providing full answers.

sa1988
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Homework Statement



Not actually a homework question but is an exercise in my lecture notes.

Homework Equations



I'm following this which demonstrates that the momentum operator is Hermitian:

103s7eg.png


The Attempt at a Solution

$$KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \int\Psi_{m}^{*} \Psi_{n}^{''} dx $$
$$ by parts: \int uv' = uv - \int vu' $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - \int \Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{'*} dx \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - (\Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{*} - \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx) \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx $$
$$KE_{mn} = KE_{mn}$$

:oldconfused::oldconfused::oldconfused:

Can anyone see the gaping error in my working?

Thanks :oldsmile:
 
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sa1988 said:
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - \int \Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{'*} dx \Big) $$
$$ KE_{mn} = (\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}) \Big( \Psi_{m}^* \Psi_{n}^{'} - (\Psi_{n}^{'} \Psi_{m}^{*} - \int \Psi_{m}^{*}\Psi_{n}^{''} dx) \Big) $$
The second time you are doing the integration by parts, you are making the wrong choice for ##u## and ##v'##.

Also, don't forget that this is a definite integral.
 
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DrClaude said:
The second time you are doing the integration by parts, you are making the wrong choice for ##u## and ##v'##.

Also, don't forget that this is a definite integral.

Thanks for this. Relieving to see it was a fairly simple arithmetic error, but worrying that my eyes continually didn't pick up on it...

Pretty late in the evening now and I don't have any pen or paper handy for going over it all, but I'll check it out tomorrow.

Cheers :)
 
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you
 
Louis419 said:
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you

Okay, but maybe you are two years too late!

Personally, I would have used the Hermitian property of ##p## to show the Hermitian property of ##p^2## directly.
 
Louis419 said:
Hi, may I have the full set solution of this question? Thank you
We don't give full solutions at PhysicsForums. Try it yourself and create a thread with your question if you are having some problems. We will help you get to the solution.
 

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