Volume of Revolution: Intuitive Explanation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of the volume of revolution for functions of the form f(x) = x raised to a power between -0.5 and -1. Participants explore the counter-intuitive nature of having an infinite area under the curve while the volume of revolution remains finite. The focus is on seeking an intuitive geometrical explanation rather than purely algebraic integration methods.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant claims that for f(x) = x raised to a power between -0.5 and -1, the area under the curve from x=1 to infinity is infinite, while the volume of revolution around the x-axis is finite.
  • Another participant questions the assertion that the volume is finite.
  • A different participant confirms that for the specific case of f(x) = 1/x, the volume is indeed finite, but both the surface area and integral are infinite, referencing Gabriel's Horn as an example.
  • One participant elaborates on the mathematical reasoning, explaining how adding 1 to the power of x makes it positive, leading to an infinite term, while squaring the function for volume results in a power that remains less than -1, causing the integral to approach zero as s tends to infinity.
  • A later reply expresses dissatisfaction with existing explanations, noting that the paradox applies to a broader family of functions beyond just 1/x and seeks further intuitive geometrical insights.
  • Another participant comments on the inherent difficulty of intuitively grasping infinite concepts, suggesting that infinity itself is not spatially intuitive.
  • One participant humorously acknowledges a mistake in their calculations, reflecting on the challenges of understanding the topic.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants exhibit a mix of agreement and disagreement, with some confirming the finiteness of volume for specific functions while others question or seek clarification on these claims. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the intuitive geometrical understanding of the phenomenon.

Contextual Notes

Participants express limitations in existing explanations, particularly regarding the intuitive geometrical reasoning behind the paradox of infinite area versus finite volume. There is also a noted dependence on the specific definitions and properties of the functions discussed.

Aeneas
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If f(x) = x to a power between -0.5 and -1, the area between the f(x) graph and the x-axis from, say x=1 to infinity is infinite, but the volume of revolution of f(x) around the x-axis is finite. This seems counter-intuitive. Can anyone give a satisfying explanation of this - preferably a geometrical one please - not just the algebraic integration please - as I'm struggling with this idea.

Thanks, in anticipation.
 
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What makes you say the volume is finite?
 
for [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex] he's right volume is finite but surface area and integral are infinite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gabriel's_Horn

down at the bottom there's a good explanation
 
daveb - For -1 is less than the power of x is less than -0.5 (Sorry, I don't have any notation available) adding 1 to the power will; make that power positive, so the chosen point, say 's' above 1 will be in the numerator and the term will become infinite as 's' tends to infinity. When you square the function, though, to get the volume, the power of x will be doubled, making it less than -1, so when the result is integrated, the power of x will still be less than one, the 's' term will be in the denominator and so the term will tend to zero as 's' tends to infinity.Mnay thanks, daveb and ice109 for your replies.
 
Aeneas said:
daveb - For -1 is less than the power of x is less than -0.5 (Sorry, I don't have any notation available) adding 1 to the power will; make that power positive, so the chosen point, say 's' above 1 will be in the numerator and the term will become infinite as 's' tends to infinity. When you square the function, though, to get the volume, the power of x will be doubled, making it less than -1, so when the result is integrated, the power of x will still be less than one, the 's' term will be in the denominator and so the term will tend to zero as 's' tends to infinity.Mnay thanks, daveb and ice109 for your replies.

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Thanks for that tip ice109. The Gabriel's Horn explanation in Wikipedia in good, much better than Weisstein, who does not even try to tackle it, but it still does not really satisfy in terms of intuitive geometrical thinking. Also 1/x is only one of a family of functions for which this paradox occurs, which is not made clear. Is there a clue here? Thanks for that, anyway.
 
infinite things are not spacially intuitive, by virtue of never knowing infinity you can not have intuition about it.
 

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