# Wave function simplification in relativistic coordinates?

1. Feb 24, 2014

### sciencegem

My text book says
ψ(x,t)=exp(i(p$_{0}$x$^{0}$ + p$^{→}$$\cdot$x$^{→}$)/h)=exp(i*p$\cdot$x/h)
(note that by h I mean 'h-bar'...couldn't find the symbol).
I don't recognize (like my text implies I should) how the first equation equals the second. Where did the p$_{0}$x$^{0}$ go? Sorry for my stupidity here. Any hints appreciated. Thanks.

2. Feb 24, 2014

### Staff: Mentor

On the right side, he's considering p and x as relativistic 4-vectors. p⋅x is the 4-vector "dot product" which is defined as the expression in the inner parentheses on the left side.

3. Feb 24, 2014

### sciencegem

I can't believe I didn't think of that. Thank you!

4. Feb 24, 2014

### Bill_K

In TeX it's \ hbar. In UTF it's just ħ

5. Feb 24, 2014

Thanks!