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Wavefunctions and probability-Proof

  1. Sep 30, 2008 #1
    Prove that the probability of finding a particle of mass m in a one-dimensional potential well of length L is 0.5 for both the first and second half of the well for the state with n = 2. Demonstrate that these results make sense in light of the form of the wavefunction for each case.

    Someone please help me with proofs. What is general outline i should follow to do this?
    Last edited: Sep 30, 2008
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 30, 2008 #2
    Do you know the wave function for your potential well?

    If so, compute the probability of finding the particle in (0,L/2) and then (L/2,0). You should find that the probabilities are equal.

    Then plot [tex] \psi\left(x\right) [/tex] and [tex] \psi^{2}\left(x\right) [/tex]. It should be apparent then.
  4. Sep 30, 2008 #3
    can I use the normalized particle in a box wavefunction, or should I normalize the constant in another manner.
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