What if a particle had infinite mass?

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When considering a particle with infinite mass in an infinite potential well, the wave function becomes increasingly narrow, suggesting a well-defined position. As the mass approaches infinity, classical mechanics dominate, leading to a scenario where the wave function does not oscillate and ultimately vanishes. The energy equations indicate that regardless of the energy level, the system would yield zero energy, resulting in unphysical outcomes. This discussion highlights the limitations of applying infinite mass in quantum mechanics, emphasizing that such scenarios lead to nonsensical results. The concept remains largely theoretical and unphysical in nature.
trelek2
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Hi, I'm wondering what will happen to the wave function of a particle when we take its mass to infinity.

Suppose the infinite particle is in an infinite potential well, how do we sketch the wave function?
 
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trelek2 said:
Hi, I'm wondering what will happen to the wave function of a particle when we take its mass to infinity.

Suppose the infinite particle is in an infinite potential well, how do we sketch the wave function?
I didn't run any number. I don't think an infinite mass is realistic. The best I can think of is to let the mass tends to infinity. When the mass is "big", you should fall over classical mechanics. That would mean that in the "infinite potential" the wavefunction is probably narrow (which means a somehow well defined position).
Just a guess though.
 
This is unphysical, but...

Simply take the solution to the particle-in-a-box and let m->inf. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particle_in_a_box

The w in the e^-iwt term goes to zero, so the whole thing vanishes. You're left with a particle that doesn't oscillate at its initial state, which is going to be some superposition of Acos(kx) + Bsin(kx).

Looking at the energy equations, you can see this quickly leads to nonsense; for example, no matter the energy level of the system (n) the system would have zero energy!
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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