- #1

- 433

- 7

## Main Question or Discussion Point

If you have f(x) = 1/x and g(a) = (cosx - 1)/x and then y = [limx→0 f(x)][limx→0g(x)], the two individual limits equal 0 and infinity, respectively. Since these are limits and only approach these values, would the multiplication of the two limits equal 0, infinity or something else?