What is the closed form for the series S?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the propagator derived from a scalar field Lagrangian in quantum field theory. The original poster presents two forms of the Lagrangian, one including a mass term and the other treating the mass term as an interaction. The goal is to demonstrate the equivalence of the propagators obtained from these two approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the form of the propagator for a scalar particle and explore the implications of treating the mass term differently. There are attempts to express the propagator as a series and questions about how to show the equivalence of the two forms. Some participants suggest considering the series as a geometric series or a Taylor expansion.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their attempts at manipulating the series and expressing uncertainty about the behavior of certain terms as limits are taken. Some guidance has been offered regarding the series representation, but no consensus has been reached on how to finalize the equivalence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the information they can use or the methods they can apply. There is an emphasis on exploring the mathematical relationships without providing direct solutions.

kelly0303
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Homework Statement


I have the Lagrangian $$L=-\frac{1}{2}\phi\Box \phi-\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$$ and I need to show that the propagator in the momentum space I obtain using this lagrangian (considering no interaction) is the same as if I consider the free Lagrangian to be $$L_{free}=-\frac{1}{2}\phi\Box \phi$$ and treat the mass term as an interaction $$L_{int}= -\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$$

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So in the normal case the propagator for a mass m scalar particle is $$\frac{i}{p^2-m^2+i\epsilon}$$. For the other approach I get that the propagator looks like this: $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-im^2(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^4+...$$ But i am not sure how to show they are equal. Can someone help me?
 
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kelly0303 said:

Homework Statement


I have the Lagrangian $$L=-\frac{1}{2}\phi\Box \phi-\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$$ and I need to show that the propagator in the momentum space I obtain using this lagrangian (considering no interaction) is the same as if I consider the free Lagrangian to be $$L_{free}=-\frac{1}{2}\phi\Box \phi$$ and treat the mass term as an interaction $$L_{int}= -\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$$

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So in the normal case the propagator for a mass m scalar particle is $$\frac{i}{p^2-m^2+i\epsilon}$$. For the other approach I get that the propagator looks like this: $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-im^2(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^4+...$$ But i am not sure how to show they are equal. Can someone help me?
It is a geometric series. Alternatively, you can see this as the Taylor expansion around ##m^2=0## of what expression?
 
nrqed said:
It is a geometric series. Alternatively, you can see this as the Taylor expansion around ##m^2=0## of what expression?
Thank you for this so I have: $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-im^2(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^4+...$$ $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}(1-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+...)$$ $$lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}\frac{1-(-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^n}{1+im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}}$$ $$lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1-(-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^n}{p^2+i\epsilon+im^2}$$ I am not sure from here. How does that term behave as n goes to infinity? Also I have a factor of i with that ##m^2##
 
kelly0303 said:
Thank you for this so I have: $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-im^2(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^4+...$$ $$\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}(1-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}-m^4(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^2+im^6(\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^3+...)$$ $$lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}\frac{1-(-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^n}{1+im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon}}$$ $$lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1-(-im^2\frac{1}{p^2+i\epsilon})^n}{p^2+i\epsilon+im^2}$$ I am not sure from here. How does that term behave as n goes to infinity? Also I have a factor of i with that ##m^2##
There is a way to write the series in closed form. Consider

$$ S \equiv 1 + x + x^2 + \ldots $$

Then $$ S-1 = x S$$,
right? Then we can can solve for the sum S.
 

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