MHB What is the Integral of Sin(x)/(x^2+1) from -1 to 1?

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The integral of sin(x)/(x^2+1) from -1 to 1 equals zero, as the function is odd, meaning its values cancel out over the symmetric interval. Graphing confirms this property, demonstrating that the integral evaluates to zero due to the odd function rule. While the integral is non-elementary and complex, the key takeaway is that the symmetry of the function leads to the result without needing to compute the integral explicitly. The discussion highlights the importance of recognizing odd functions in integration. Understanding these properties simplifies the evaluation of certain integrals significantly.
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$\text{S6.7.r.12}$

$$\displaystyle
\int_{-1}^{1}\frac{\sin\left({x}\right)}{1+x^2} \,dx =0 $$

graphing this, it shows an odd function with the values canceling each other out resulting in zero.
but step wise not sure how to take the integral of this.

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I'm pretty sure the integral is non-elementary. Wolfram Alpha gives a nasty result.
 
yeah I don't know its an even problem # so no bk answer the TI said it was zero.

online Integral Calculator gave this
$$\dfrac{\mathrm{i}\cosh\left(1\right)\left(\operatorname{Si}\left(x+\mathrm{i}\right)
-\operatorname{Si}\left(x-\mathrm{i}\right)\right)+\sinh\left(1\right)\left(\operatorname{Ci}\left(x+\mathrm{i}\right)+\operatorname{Ci}\left(x-\mathrm{i}\right)\right)}{2}$$

I was clueless
 
karush said:
$\text{S6.7.r.12}$

$$\displaystyle
\int_{-1}^{1}\frac{\sin\left({x}\right)}{1+x^2} \,dx =0 $$

graphing this, it shows an odd function with the values canceling each other out resulting in zero.
but step wise not sure how to take the integral of this.

Theorem: If your function f(x) is an odd function (i.e. f(x) = f(-x) for all x) then $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \int_{-a}^a{f(x)\,\mathrm{d}x} = 0 \end{align*}$.

So all you need to do is show that $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{\sin{ \left( -x \right) }}{1 + \left( -x \right) ^2} = -\left[ \frac{\sin{(x)}}{1 + x^2} \right] \end{align*}$...
 
Suppose we have an even function $F$:

$$F(x)=F(-x)$$

and we differentiate w.r.t $x$:

$$\frac{d}{dx}F(x)=\frac{d}{dx}F(-x)$$

$$f(x)=-f(-x)$$

We see then that $f$ (the derivative of $F$) must be an odd function, therefore we know the anti-derivative of an odd function is an even function, and thus we may state:

$$\int_{-a}^{a}f(x)\,dx=F(a)-F(-a)=F(a)-F(a)=0$$

This is the odd-function rule for integration.
 
I guess the hint was -1 to 1
 
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