What is the limit for cos (n pi) and sin (n pi)?

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SUMMARY

The limit of the expression \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to +\infty} \frac{{n^2 \cos \left( {n\pi } \right)}}{{n^2 + 42}}\) does not exist due to the oscillatory nature of the cosine function, which fluctuates between -1 and 1 as \(n\) approaches infinity. However, \(\sin(n \pi)\) is identically zero for all integer values of \(n\). The discussion emphasizes the importance of specifying the limit's approach, particularly noting that for integer values of \(n\), the limit behavior differs from that of continuous variables.

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teng125
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may i know how to solve [ n^2 cos(n(pi)) ]/ n^2 + 42??

i have divided it by n^2 and get cos(n pi) / (42/n^2) and i can't solve already.pls help

what is the limit for cos (n pi) and sin (n pi)??
 
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Please use latex or make the expressions more clear, using paranthesis since a/b+c isn't the same as a/(b+c), you see?
Also, the limit for what (of course n here) going to what?

I'm guessing you mean the something which looks like

\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to ?} \frac{{n^2 \cos \left( {n\pi } \right)}}{{n^2 + 42}}
 
Last edited:
[ n^2 cos(n pi ) ] / (n^2 + 42) for n >1

what is the limit for cos (n pi) and sin (n pi) for n>1 also??
 
teng125 said:
what is the limit for cos (n pi) and sin (n pi) for n>1 also??
Again, the limit of those expressions for n going to what? To 0, pi, infinity, ...? You can't say "the limit for n>1"...
 
oh...yaya for n to infinity
 
teng125 said:
oh...yaya for n to infinity
Ah :smile:

In that case, the limit doesn't exist since sin as well as cos will keep oscilating between -1 and 1.
 
Except for sin(n pi) which is identically zero for all n.
 
daveb said:
Except for sin(n pi) which is identically zero for all n.
That's only true for integer values of n, we're letting n go to infinity here.
 
so,what is the answer for my first question??
 
  • #10
The answer to this?

\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to +\infty} \frac{{n^2 \cos \left( {n\pi } \right)}}{{n^2 + 42}}

The limit doesn't exist for the reason I gave above.
 
  • #11
TD said:
That's only true for integer values of n, we're letting n go to infinity here.
True, but I had always been taught that if you have a limit as "n" goes to infinity, then you are talking about integer values for "n". If you want all values, then you use "x" instead of n. Hence, the reason I made the statement.
 
  • #12
is it possible to obtain an answer if n goes to 1 ??
 
  • #13
teng125 said:
is it possible to obtain an answer if n goes to 1 ??
Sure, just fill in n = 1.
 
  • #14
Gah, shake head, look askance. limit as n goes to 1... n is taken to be integer valued, it makes no sense to ask 'as n tends to 1'. See Daveb's very important interjection, TD.
 

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