What is the physical interpretation of zero divergence?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the physical interpretation of zero divergence in vector fields, specifically magnetic fields represented by ∇·B = 0. This condition indicates that magnetic fields do not have sources or sinks, as opposed to electric fields which originate from positive charges and terminate at negative charges. The absence of magnetic charge leads to the conclusion that magnetic field lines form closed loops, reinforcing the concept that magnetic monopoles do not exist. The discussion also highlights the relationship between divergence and flux in vector fields, emphasizing that zero divergence means equal flux entering and exiting any infinitesimal volume.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector calculus, particularly divergence
  • Familiarity with Maxwell's equations, especially ∇·B = 0
  • Knowledge of magnetic fields and their properties
  • Concept of flux in vector fields
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Maxwell's equations in detail, focusing on the implications of ∇·B = 0
  • Explore the concept of magnetic monopoles and their theoretical implications
  • Learn about the Biot-Savart law and its application in calculating magnetic fields
  • Investigate the relationship between divergence and physical interpretations in fluid dynamics
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, electrical engineers, and anyone interested in electromagnetism and vector field theory will benefit from this discussion.

aaaa202
Messages
1,144
Reaction score
2
When a vector field representing a physical quantity (e.g. B) has ∇\cdotB = 0 what is then the physical interpretation of this? Some people have said that the field doesn't diverge away from anything, but as far as I can tell magnetic field can easily get weaker and weaker the further you go away.
I also have some trouble understanding exactly what my book means by the fact that ∇\cdotB = 0 reflects the fact that there exists no magnetic charge. I know in the electrical case ∇\cdotE = ρ/ε0 but that just comes from coulombs law and how electric fields behave.
Who says magnetic charge can't be different producing fields with zero divergence (like that of the Biot-Savart law).
 
Physics news on Phys.org
aaaa202 said:
When a vector field representing a physical quantity (e.g. B) has ∇\cdotB = 0 what is then the physical interpretation of this? Some people have said that the field doesn't diverge away from anything, but as far as I can tell magnetic field can easily get weaker and weaker the further you go away.
I also have some trouble understanding exactly what my book means by the fact that ∇\cdotB = 0 reflects the fact that there exists no magnetic charge. I know in the electrical case ∇\cdotE = ρ/ε0 but that just comes from coulombs law and how electric fields behave.
Who says magnetic charge can't be different producing fields with zero divergence (like that of the Biot-Savart law).
If \displaystyle \vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{F}=0\,, for some vector field,\ \vec{F}\,,\ then the "field-lines" have no "sources" or "sinks".

This is unlike the electric field, for which the field-lines originate on positive charges and terminate on negative charges.

Since for the magnetic field,\ \vec{B}\,,\ we have \displaystyle \vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{B}=0\,, each field-line forms a closed loop, with no "source" or "sink" !
 
To physically interpret what zero gradiance of vector field is; you first have to be able to physically interpret what gradience of a vector field actually is.

A vector point function assigns every point in a coordinate space with a vector. So consider such a vector field; the velocity of flowing water in pipe which assigns every point inside the pipe with a vector equal to the velocity of water. Now consider any point in the pipe and construct an infinitesimal volume with dimensions dx ,dy, dz respectively in your x , y and z axes. The gradiance of the vector field at that point gives the total amount of water ( flux i.e field * area) exiting from that volume minus the total amount of water ( flux )entering that volume. [ you can do the mathematical workout if needed i will provide]

If there is is a source of water inside the infinitesimally chosen volume then all water must flow out of the volume, which would provide +ve divergence. Oppositively if there was a sink that somehow consumed, more water would flow inward than that exit out of the volume and hence the gradience would be negative.

Now see what does zero divergence mean> It simply means the total flux entering any infinitesimal volume in the filed of that vector field is equal to the total flux exiting, since divergence is the difference of flux exiting and flux entering.

Now ∇.B)= 0 means fore any arbitrarily taken volume in the magnetic field, there is always equal amount of flux entering and exiting. Since the filed of N pole is outward directed (conventionally) and of S pole is inward directed. Their difference is always zero means equal amount of flux enter and exit out of a arbitrarily chosen infinitesimally volume; meaning where there is N pole to produce outward flux there must be S pole to produce inward flux. Clearly MAGNETIC MONOPOLE DO NOT EXIST.

Hope this helped
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
5K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
704
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
6K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
5K