What is the relationship between creation and annihilation operators in k-space?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between creation and annihilation operators in k-space, specifically whether the identity a_k^\dagger = a_{-k} holds true. It is suggested that for uncharged particles, such as Majorana Fermions and bosons, this relation may be valid, while charged particles do not exhibit this symmetry. The vacuum state is defined with all negative energy eigenstates filled and positive ones empty, leading to different interpretations in quantum electrodynamics (QED). The context of the question relates to spin waves, which are bosonic excitations that could support the proposed relationship in k-space. Overall, the discussion emphasizes the nuances of particle types in relation to creation and annihilation operators.
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Hi,

Could anyone tell if there exists an identity a_k^\dagger = a_{-k} because intuitively there should be no difference between creating a particle with momentum k and destroying a particle with momentum -k.
If true is it possible to show that from the definition a_k = \frac{1}{√V}∫e^{ikx} a(x)?
 
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Hello Trave11er,

Given the value of p, there are two solutions for the energy, one possitive the other negative.

The vacuum state is defined as having all the negative eigenstates full (no particles with
negative energy) and all the possitive eigenstates empty (no particles). In QED negative energy particles are interpreted as particles with opposite charge traveling backwards in time (positrons), so the destruction of a hole (creation as a positron) is not the same that the creation of an electron.
 
Trave11er said:
intuitively there should be no difference between creating a particle with momentum k and destroying a particle with momentum -k.

That depends on the kind of particle. I think uncharged particles like Majorana Fermions and bosons can act as their own anti-particles. For charged particles, there is no such relation between creation and anihilation operators with k and -k respectively.
 
Thanks for the replies,

The original question actually arose in the context of spin waves which have bosonic excitations on chain of spins - they are not charged so to me it seems that the relation in k-space should hold and it should be possible to prove starting from definition.
 
Thanks for the replies,

The original question actually arose in the context of spin waves which have bosonic excitations on chain of spins - they are not charged so to me it seems that the relation in k-space should hold and it should be possible to prove starting from definition.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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