Sep 4, 2020 #2 skeeter Messages 1,103 Reaction score 1 $\dfrac{6}{2(1+2)} = \dfrac{6}{2(3)} = \dfrac{6}{6} = 1$
Sep 28, 2020 #3 HOI Messages 921 Reaction score 2 This could also be done as $\frac{6}{2(1+ 2)}= \frac{6}{2}\frac{1}{3}= 3\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)= \frac{3}{3}= 1$.
This could also be done as $\frac{6}{2(1+ 2)}= \frac{6}{2}\frac{1}{3}= 3\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)= \frac{3}{3}= 1$.
Thread 'There are only finitely many primes' I just saw this one. If there are finitely many primes, then ##0<\prod_{p}\sin(\frac\pi p)=\prod_p\sin\left(\frac{\pi(1+2\prod_q q)}p\right)=0## Of course it is in a way just a variation of Euclid's idea, but it is a one liner. View full post »
I just saw this one. If there are finitely many primes, then ##0<\prod_{p}\sin(\frac\pi p)=\prod_p\sin\left(\frac{\pi(1+2\prod_q q)}p\right)=0## Of course it is in a way just a variation of Euclid's idea, but it is a one liner.