What Is the Smallest Angular Separation the Human Eye Can Resolve?

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The discussion focuses on calculating the smallest angular separation the human eye can resolve using the formula theta_r = 1.22(wavelength/d). A user attempts the calculation with a pupil radius of 3.0 mm and a wavelength of 400 nm, arriving at a result of 0.0000813 radians, which they believe is incorrect. They reference external sources indicating that the expected resolution for violet light through a 6 mm aperture is around 15 arcseconds, suggesting a discrepancy in their calculation. Additionally, there is mention of the challenges in resolving violet light due to its difficulty for human vision. The conversation highlights the complexities of angular resolution and the impact of diffraction limits on visual perception.
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Homework Statement


For an eye in which the pupil has a radius of 3.0 mm, what is the smallest angular separation that can be resolved when two violet (λ = 400 nm) objects are placed side by side?

Homework Equations


theta_r = sin(theta_r) = 1.22(wavelength/d)

The Attempt at a Solution


theta_r = 1.22(400*(.000000001)) / (6*.001) = .0000813

This is incorrect. Where have I gone wrong?
 
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Who says it's not correct ? I get what you get using that formula.

When I Google angular resolution and look at the picture , then violet at 6 mm aperture shows something that looks around 15 arcsec, and sure enough 8.13 x 10-5 * 180/##\pi## = 17/3600 .

My eyes sure don't dissolve two spots on a 10 m far wall that are 0.8 mm apart, but perhaps that isn't the idea anyway...

[edit] another contribution: Hyperphysics mentions 2 x 10-4 radians for "Most acute vision, optimum circumstances" -- within a factor 2 of the physical limits imposed by diffraction.

The only thing I can think of that would spoil the fun is that blue and violet are difficult colours for human eyes, but I don't have anything quantitative on that.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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