What is the source of the Kelvin Water Dropper effect?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the nature of charged water streams from a classical mechanics and matter perspective. It highlights that "positive" and "negative" charges in water relate to the autoionization of water, where H(+) and OH(-) ions form. The charge separation is driven by gravitational potential energy and is influenced by dissolved ions. Additionally, it notes that flowing water contains separated charges, similar to the charge separation observed in static electricity, such as when combing hair. However, due to water's conductivity, there is no significant charge buildup, with devices like the Kelvin dropper serving to amplify these effects.
bmarc92
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
From a classical mechanics perspective I understand the force interactions leading to the phenomenon, but from a matter perspective, what is a "positive" or "negative ly" charged water stream?

Is this referring to the spontaneousH(+) + OH(- )formations?
 
Chemistry news on Phys.org
The charges come from autoionization of water, yes, as well as any dissolved ions that happen to be in the water. Ultimately, the energy source that drives the charge separation is gravitational potential energy.
 
Also google solvated electron.

Apart from ions flowing water is full of separated charges, this is in principle not much different from the separation of charges that occur when combing hair (or any place where there is some friction). The difference is water is a reasonably good conductor (unless ultra pure), so there is no charge build up. Kelvin dropper just amplifies these effects.
 
It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!
Back
Top