What is the sum of n^2/n from 1 to infinity?

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SUMMARY

The series \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^2}{n!}\) converges to \(2e\), as confirmed by both the ratio test and computational tools like Wolfram Alpha. The derivation involves manipulating the series into a more manageable form, specifically transforming it into \(\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{k+1}{k!}\). The evaluation of the derivative of the function \(xe^x\) at \(x=1\) also yields \(2e\), providing a legitimate method to arrive at the result.

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Homework Statement



\sum_1^\infty \frac{n^2}{n!} =

The Attempt at a Solution



Context: practice Math GRE question I don't know how to answer.

Well, it's bigger than e and converges by the ratio test. Adding up the first 5 or 6 terms suggests that it converges to 2e. That's good enough for a standardized test, but I'd like to know how to handle this series legitimately.

Thanks in advance for any help.
 
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It does converge to 2e (by wolfram alpha), but I'm not sure how to derive it.
 
Is \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{(n-1)!} any easier ?
 
upsidedowntop said:

Homework Statement



\sum_1^\infty \frac{n^2}{n!} =

The Attempt at a Solution



Context: practice Math GRE question I don't know how to answer.

Well, it's bigger than e and converges by the ratio test. Adding up the first 5 or 6 terms suggests that it converges to 2e. That's good enough for a standardized test, but I'd like to know how to handle this series legitimately.

Thanks in advance for any help.

n^2/n! = n/(n-1)!, so your sum = sum_{n=1..inf} n/(n-1)! = sum_{k=0..inf} (k+1)/k!. Look at (d/dx) sum_{k=0..inf} x^(k+1)/k! .

RGV
 
Thank you Sammy and Ray, I have it now. In case anyone is curious:

<br /> \sum_1^\infty \frac{n^2}{n!} <br /> <br /> = \sum_0^\infty \frac{k+1}{k!}<br /> <br /> = lim_{m \to \infty} (p_m + p_{m-1})<br />
where p_k = \sum_0^m 1/k! .
And that limit is 2e.

Ray, I see that that derivative, evaluated at 1, is equal to our series. But what good does that do?
 
You can look at this in stages:

What is \frac{n}{n!} equal to?

Then what is \sum_1^\infty \frac{n}{n!} equal to? (It will help to keep in mind the infinite series for e .)

Next, what is \frac{n (n-1)}{n!} equal to? (Write it two different ways: by cancelling terms in numerator and denominator and by simply multiplying out the numerator.)

Then what would \sum_2^\infty\frac{n (n-1)}{n!} equal? (It may help at any of these stages to write out the first few terms of the series.)

You can now add your result for \sum_1^\infty \frac{n}{n!} to your new result to find \sum_1^\infty \frac{n^2}{n!} .

(You could also use this iteratively to find a general result for \sum_1^\infty \frac{n^p}{n!} .)
 
Last edited:
upsidedowntop said:
Thank you Sammy and Ray, I have it now. In case anyone is curious:
...

And that limit is 2e.

Ray, I see that that derivative, evaluated at 1, is equal to our series. But what good does that do?
Ray's sum (to be differentiated) is: \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{x^{k+1}}{k!}
\displaystyle =x\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{x^{k}}{k!}

=xe^x
d/dx(xex), evaluated at x=1 is 2e .
 
Thanks a lot everyone, this was really helpful.

Regarding the question I just asked, which Sammy just answered, thanks. I was asking myself what function
\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{x^{k+1}}{k!}
was a power series for, but for some reason it wasn't clicking. I guess I'm pretty rusty with this sort of thing.
 

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