I What's my mistake in this integration problem?

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The integral ##\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\sin(x)) \mathrm{d}x## presents a challenge due to the periodic nature of the functions involved. A substitution of ##u = \sin(x)## leads to both limits of integration being 0, resulting in an incorrect conclusion of zero area. To correctly evaluate the integral, it is necessary to split the integral into segments where the function behaves consistently, specifically recognizing that ##\cos^{-1}(\sin(x))## has different expressions across the intervals. The correct evaluation reveals that the area under the curve is ##\pi^2##, confirming the periodic properties of the functions involved. Thus, careful consideration of the limits and function behavior is essential for accurate integration.
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My calculation of the integral leads to 0 when I do u-substitution. But from the graph of the function, I can see that the area is obviously not 0.
Here's the problem: ##\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\sin(x)) \mathrm{d}x##
If I do the substitution ##u = \sin(x)##, both the limits of integration become 0 and the integral would result in 0. But the graph of the function tells me the area isn't 0. Where am I going wrong?
 
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murshid_islam said:
TL;DR Summary: My calculation of the integral leads to 0 when I do u-substitution. But from the graph of the function, I can see that the area is obviously not 0.

Here's the problem: ##\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\sin(x)) \mathrm{d}x##
If I do the substitution ##u = \sin(x)##, both the limits of integration become 0 and the integral would result in 0. But the graph of the function tells me the area isn't 0. Where am I going wrong?
The new variable in a substitution must be an interval. Otherwise, with an appropriate substitution you could make the limits equal on any integral.
 
Ok, I tried it with integration by parts with ##u = \cos^{−1}(\sin(x))## and ##\mathrm{d}v = \mathrm{d}x##, which gives us ##\mathrm{d}u = \frac{−\cos(x)}{\sqrt{1−\sin^2 x}}\mathrm{d}x = −\mathrm{d}x## and ##v=x##.
The integral becomes ##x\cos^{−1}(\sin(x)) + \int x \mathrm{d}x = x\cos^{-1}(\sin(x)) + \frac{x^2}{2} + C##
Evaluating that from 0 to ##2\pi##, we get ##\left(2\pi\cos^{−1}(0) − 0\right) + \frac{1}{2}\left(4\pi^2 − 0\right) = \pi^2 + 2\pi^2 = 3\pi^2##

But the actual answer seems to be ##\pi^2##. What am I missing?
 
That arccos is periodic, of period exactly ##2\pi## and that also sin is periodic. So you must be careful when computing the derivative of ##u## between the limits.
 
dextercioby said:
That arccos is periodic, of period exactly ##2\pi## and that also sin is periodic. So you must be careful when computing the derivative of ##u## between the limits.
The range of sin(x) is the interval [-1, 1], which is also the domain of arccos(x). I'm not being able to figure out how that will affect ##\mathrm{d}u##. What will ##\mathrm{d}u## be if ##u = \arccos(\sin x)##?
 
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murshid_islam said:
The range of sin(x) is the interval [-1, 1], which is also the domain of arccos(x). I'm not being able to figure out how that will affect ##\mathrm{d}u##. What will ##\mathrm{d}u## be if ##u = \arccos(\sin x)##?
You have to split the integral, so that ##u## in each case takes values from a simple interval. We look at the values of ##\sin x##:

##x \in [0, \frac \pi 2]## gives ##\sin x \in [0, 1]##
##x \in [\frac \pi 2, \frac {3\pi} 2]## gives ##\sin x \in [1, -1]##
##x \in [\frac {3\pi} 2, 2\pi]## gives ##\sin x \in [-1, 0]##

To illustrate the point. Consider the integral: ##\int_0^1 x \ dx## and use the substitution ##u = x(1-x)##. This transforms the integeral to: ##\int_0^0 f(u) \ du## for some function ##f##, which you can work out. But, we've screwed the limits on the integral.
 
What about using ##\sin x = \cos(x - \frac \pi 2)##?
 
murshid_islam said:
But the actual answer seems to be ##\pi^2##. What am I missing?
I agree with the answer ##\pi^2##. As above, the integrand takes a different form across the interval of integration. So, you have to identify this and split the integral up.
 
Here's a quick way. Note that the function ##\cos^{-1}(\cos x)## has period ##2\pi##:

For ##x \in [0, \pi]## we have ##\cos^{-1}(\cos x) = x##

For ##x \in [\pi, 2\pi]## we have ##\cos^{-1}(\cos x) = 2\pi - x##

A graph of this function is a triangle of base ##2\pi## and height ##\pi##, hence area ##\pi^2##. Hence:
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\cos x) \ dx = \pi^2$$As the function is periodic, for any ##a##, we have:
$$\int_a^{a + 2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\cos x) \ dx = \pi^2$$Finally, using ##\sin x = \cos (x - \frac \pi 2)##, we have:
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\sin x) \ dx = \int_0^{2\pi} \cos^{-1}(\cos(x - \frac \pi 2)) \ dx$$$$= \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac {3\pi} 2} \cos^{-1}(\cos u) \ du = \pi^2$$
 
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