When Does the Collection Approach Zero Uniformly for Differentiable Functions?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the conditions under which a collection of functions defined from a differentiable function approaches zero uniformly as a parameter tends to zero. Participants explore the implications of differentiability, continuous differentiability, and the continuity of second derivatives in relation to uniform differentiability.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant defines a collection of functions based on a differentiable function and poses the question of uniform convergence as a parameter approaches zero.
  • Another participant reflects on previous discussions about conditions for uniform differentiability, suggesting that continuous differentiability might be sufficient.
  • A later post claims that if the second derivative exists and is continuous, then the function is uniformly differentiable, providing a proof based on the mean value theorem.
  • Another participant shares a related result that a function is uniformly differentiable if its derivative is uniformly continuous, indicating a connection to the original question.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying opinions on the sufficiency of continuous differentiability and the role of the second derivative in establishing uniform differentiability. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the exact conditions required for uniform convergence.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the differentiability and continuity of derivatives are present, but the implications of these assumptions on uniform convergence are not fully resolved. The discussion also highlights the dependence on the definitions of uniform differentiability and continuity.

jostpuur
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Let [tex]f:]a,b[\to\mathbb{R}[/tex] be a differentiable function. For each fixed [tex]x\in ]a,b[[/tex], we can define a function

[tex] \epsilon_x: D_x\to\mathbb{R},\quad\quad \epsilon_x(u) = \frac{f(x+u) - f(x)}{u} \;-\; f'(x)[/tex]

where

[tex] D_x = \{u\in\mathbb{R}\backslash\{0\}\;|\; a < x+u < b\}.[/tex]

Now we have [tex]\epsilon_x(u)\to 0[/tex] when [tex]u\to 0[/tex] for all [tex]x[/tex], but let us then define a following collection of functions for all [tex]|u|<b-a[/tex].

[tex] \epsilon_u:E_u\to\mathbb{R},\quad\quad \epsilon_u(x) = \epsilon_x(u)[/tex]

where

[tex] E_u = \{x\in ]a,b[\;|\; a < x + u < b\}.[/tex]

For all [tex]\delta > 0[/tex] there exists [tex]U>0[/tex] so that [tex]]a+\delta, b-\delta[\subset E_u[/tex] when [tex]|u| < U[/tex]. So now it makes sense to ask, that under which conditions does the collection [tex]\epsilon_u|_{]a+\delta, b-\delta[}[/tex] approach zero uniformly when [tex]u\to 0[/tex], for all [tex]\delta > 0[/tex]?

For example, could f being continuously differentiable be enough?
 
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This thread is reasonably recent, so I thought I might reiterate your question. I was looking for conditions for which uniform differentiability holds and I found your thread as a Google search result. Have you found what you're looking for?
 
Actually it happened, that one guy did try to explain this to me, and the result seemed to be that uniform differentiability is very common. It could be that continuous differentiability is sufficient (or then I remembered incorrectly. In the next post I needed continuity of the second derivative). Unfortunately I was too tired and not so interested at that moment, so I didn't listen to that guy back then... :biggrin: Perhaps I should to try to return to this now...
 
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It could be I proved now that if [itex]f''[/itex] exists and is continuous, then [itex]f[/itex] is uniformly differentiable. From the mean value theorem it follows that we have some mapping

[tex] \{(x,u)\in\mathbb{R}^2\;|\; u\neq 0,\; a<x<b,\; a<x+u<b\},\quad (x,u)\mapsto \xi_{x,u}[/tex]

such that

[tex] |\xi_{x,u} - x| \leq u[/tex]

and

[tex] \frac{f(x+u)-f(x)}{u} = f'(\xi_{x,u}).[/tex]

So

[tex] |\epsilon_u(x)| = |f'(\xi_{x,u}) - f'(x)| \leq \Big|\frac{f'(\xi_{x,u}) - f'(x)}{\xi_{x,u} - x}\Big| \;|u|[/tex]

If [itex]f''[/itex] is continuous, then by using mean value theorem again, we obtain some upper bound [itex]M[/itex] such that

[tex] \Big|\frac{f'(\xi_{x,u}) - f'(x)}{\xi_{x,u} - x}\Big| < M[/tex]

for all [itex]x,\xi_{x,u}\in[a+\frac{\delta}{2},b-\frac{\delta}{2}][/itex]. This condition follows when [itex]x\in [a+\delta, b-\delta][/itex] and [itex]u\in ]-\frac{\delta}{2},0[\;\cup\; ]0,\frac{\delta}{2}[[/itex]. Then

[tex] |\epsilon_u(x)| < M\;|u|[/tex]

for all [itex]x\in [a+\delta, b-\delta][/itex] and relevant [itex]u[/itex].

JinM, if you were interested in this, perhaps you can check the proof for mistakes? :wink:
 
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Nice. I like your result -- your notation in the original post is foreign to me though, so I have to dig into that to check your proof -- although I'm sure its fine. :)

I also made a little bit of research, and another interesting result dictates loosely that f is uniformly differentiable iff f' is uniformly continuous; f is a differentiable function by assumption, of course. The proof follows easily -- thought I'd share this.
 

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