When is an entire function a constant?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of entire functions in complex analysis, specifically focusing on the condition that the imaginary part of an entire function is greater than zero and its implications regarding the function being constant.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the ordering of complex numbers and the implications of the imaginary part being positive. There is a questioning of how the imaginary part can be compared to real numbers, leading to discussions about the nature of complex numbers and their components.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered clarifications regarding the ordering of real numbers and the interpretation of the imaginary part of complex functions. There is an acknowledgment of misunderstandings, but no consensus has been reached on the broader implications of the theorem being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of the definitions and properties of complex numbers, particularly in relation to the conditions set by the problem statement. The discussion reflects a mix of confusion and attempts to clarify foundational concepts.

Terrell
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Homework Statement


Let ##f(z)## be an entire function of ##z \in \Bbb{C}##. If ##\operatorname{Im}(f(z)) \gt 0##, then ##f(z)## is a constant.

Homework Equations


n/a

The Attempt at a Solution


I don't get how the imaginary part of ##f(z)## would be greater than any number. Aren't complex numbers not ordered? The proof is one line and uses Louiville's Theorem, but I think I don't understand this question in the first place.
 
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Complex numbers are not ordered, but Im(f(z)) is a real number, which are ordered.
 
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Terrell said:

Homework Statement


Let ##f(z)## be an entire function of ##z \in \Bbb{C}##. If ##\operatorname{Im}(f(z)) \gt 0##, then ##f(z)## is a constant.

Homework Equations


n/a

The Attempt at a Solution


I don't get how the imaginary part of ##f(z)## would be greater than any number. Aren't complex numbers not ordered? The proof is one line and uses Louiville's Theorem, but I think I don't understand this question in the first place.

Any line in the complex plane can be ordered: it's essentially the same as the Real line. That's also true of the imaginary line.

In any case, the imaginary part of a complex number can be seen as a function from ##\mathbb{C}## to ##\mathbb{R}##.

And, in fact, ##Im(z) > 0## simply means that ##z## lies in the upper half of the complex plane.
 
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FactChecker said:
Complex numbers are not ordered, but Im(f(z)) is a real number, which are ordered.
Thanks! I just realized my boo boo.
 

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