Why a spring-mass assembly is a SHM?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding why a spring-mass assembly and a simple pendulum exhibit simple harmonic motion (SHM). Participants explore the mathematical relationships and physical principles that define SHM in these systems.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the mathematical expressions for SHM, including the relationship between displacement, velocity, and acceleration in a spring-mass system. Questions arise regarding the conditions under which a pendulum behaves as SHM, particularly in relation to small angle approximations and the proportionality of restoring forces to displacement.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the conditions necessary for SHM in both spring-mass and pendulum systems. Some guidance has been offered regarding the small angle approximation for pendulums, but there is no explicit consensus on the broader implications for larger angles.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the restoring force for a pendulum is not proportional to displacement at larger angles, raising questions about the limits of SHM applicability in practical scenarios.

jaumzaum
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I was trying to understand why a spring -mass assembly and a simple pendulum is a simple harmonic movement.

I've done like this:

In a SHM that starts in -A, we have x = -A.cos(wt)

In a spring-mass we have that the maximum velocity is [itex]\frac{mv²} {2} = \frac{kA²}{2} -> v = A\sqrt{\frac{k}{ m}}[/itex]

[itex]w = v/A = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}[/itex]

[itex]v = \int a.dt = \int \frac{-k.x}{m} dt[/itex]

But in a SHM, [itex]v = -w .x.tan(wt) -> -w .x.tan(wt) = \int \frac{-k.x}{m} dt[/itex]


If we substitute x = -A.cos(wt), we see that the expression is true, so spring-maass is a SHM.

But I don't know how to demonstrate why pendulum is a SHM?
 
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Well at an angle θ, what the torque about the center of rotation equal to? (use m,g, and L for parameters)

This torque is also equal to I(d2θ/dt2). 'I' in this case just the inertia of the mass.
 
jaumzaum said:
I was trying to understand why a spring -mass assembly and a simple pendulum is a simple harmonic movement.

I've done like this:

In a SHM that starts in -A, we have x = -A.cos(wt)

In a spring-mass we have that the maximum velocity is [itex]\frac{mv²} {2} = \frac{kA²}{2} -> v = A\sqrt{\frac{k}{ m}}[/itex]

[itex]w = v/A = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}[/itex]

[itex]v = \int a.dt = \int \frac{-k.x}{m} dt[/itex]

But in a SHM, [itex]v = -w .x.tan(wt) -> -w .x.tan(wt) = \int \frac{-k.x}{m} dt[/itex]


If we substitute x = -A.cos(wt), we see that the expression is true, so spring-maass is a SHM.

But I don't know how to demonstrate why pendulum is a SHM?

The condition for SHM is that the restoring force is proportional to displacement.
That is pretty easy to do with a spring/mass set-up.

For a pendulum, when the bob is off to one side, the component of the mass, in the direction of travel, is the restoring force. This involves a trig function, but we can show that for small deflections, the restoring force is pretty much proportional to displacement.
 
Thanks,

If we calculte we get F = mg sin(y)cos(y)

where sin(y) = x/L if cos(y) ~ 1, we get a SHM




So in big angles, pendulum is not a SHM?
 
jaumzaum said:
Thanks,

If we calculte we get F = mg sin(y)cos(y)

where sin(y) = x/L if cos(y) ~ 1, we get a SHM

So in big angles, pendulum is not a SHM?

Not sure where that cos function came from?? but yes for small angles

Tan(x) = x = sin(x) [x in radians of course]

So this is SHM for "small" angles. The conjecture then becomes "what is small?" And that can make the subject of a great little practical exercise.
 
mg sin(y) would be the force tangent to the movement, so the force in the horizontal (x) axes is mgsin(y)cos( y)
 

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