Why are all the singular values of A equal to 1?

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The discussion revolves around the singular values of a matrix A that transforms one orthonormal basis into another. The key point is that if A is represented as A = UV^T, where U and V are orthonormal matrices, then all singular values σj of A must equal 1. This is because the transformation preserves the orthonormality of the bases, implying that A acts as an identity transformation in terms of scaling. The participants clarify that the singular values being equal to 1 is a consequence of the orthonormal nature of the bases involved. Ultimately, understanding the relationship between A, U, and V helps in deducing the singular values of A.
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Problem:

Suppose u1,...un and v1,...vn are orthonormal bases for Rn. Construct the matrix A that transforms each vj into uj to give Av1=u1,...Avn=un.

Answer key says A=UV^T since all σj=1. Why is all σj=1?
 
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What does the fact that the two bases are orthonormal tell you about A? Can you use the answer to that somehow?
 
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I regrouped and thought about this...

if A=UΣVT then AV=(UΣVT)V = UΣ

If Σ=I then AV=U and σ=1.

I think that is it. Thoughts? Much thanks.
 
This is correct, but your argument looks kind of circular. It looks like you had been told that ##\Sigma=I## because all the ##\sigma_i## are 1, and wanted to know why all the ##\sigma_i## are all 1. Now you're saying that they're all 1 because ##\Sigma=I##. You can use ##\sigma_i=1## to explain ##\Sigma=I##, or you can use ##\Sigma=I## to explain ##\sigma_i=1##, but you can't do both.

You're using a theorem that tells you that ##A=U\Sigma V^T##, and also defines ##U##, ##\Sigma## and ##V##, right? How does that theorem define ##\Sigma##? If it defines it as a diagonal matrix with the singular values of ##A## (=eigenvalues of ##\sqrt{A^*A}##) on the diagonal, then I would recommend that you ignore the theorem until you have figured out what the problem statement is telling you about A (and about ##A^*A##).

By the way, the appropriate place for a question about a textbook-style problem about linear algebra is the calculus & beyond homework forum.
 
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Sorry about the misplaced post. I wasn't working with the idea that Σ=I and thus σ=1 or vice-versa. I was working with the idea that AV has to equal U and the only way that could occur is if Σ=I. Even so, I accept your challenge of trying to dig deeper into the problem and so far, I have come up with the following:

Av1=u1 means that u1 is a linear combination of the columns of A

but u1 is part of a basis set, so by definition it cannot be made up of other bases. Therefore, A is a projection matrix. (Not sure about this, got to think about it a little more...just thought I would include my thoughts.)
 
rpthomps said:
Av1=u1 means that u1 is a linear combination of the columns of A
It does, but I don't think this will help you find the property of A that I had in mind.

rpthomps said:
but u1 is part of a basis set, so by definition it cannot be made up of other bases. Therefore, A is a projection matrix. (Not sure about this, got to think about it a little more...just thought I would include my thoughts.)
This is not correct. In fact, the only projection that takes an orthonormal basis to another is the identity map.

I'll give you another (small) hint: Start by writing down the formula that says that ##\{u_i\}## is orthonormal.
 
Fredrik said:
It does, but I don't think this will help you find the property of A that I had in mind.This is not correct. In fact, the only projection that takes an orthonormal basis to another is the identity map.

I'll give you another (small) hint: Start by writing down the formula that says that ##\{u_i\}## is orthonormal.

Okay, here is another kick at the can. If I want a matrix A that takes V and transforms it into U, such that AV=U where V and U are matrices whose columns are the orthonormal vectors ui,...un and vi,...vn respectively, then I can isolate for A by taking the inverse of V, so that A=UV-1 but because V is orthonormal then A=UVT. So, if U and V are rotation matrices, then A would be the combination of those rotation matrices. I checked it with some 2x2 matrices and it seemed to work. Thoughts?
 
This is correct. (Not exactly the method I had in mind, but close enough. We can discuss my method later). Now what does ##A=UV^T## tell you about the singular values of ##A##? What is your book's definition of a singular value?
 
Fredrik said:
This is correct. (Not exactly the method I had in mind, but close enough. We can discuss my method later). Now what does ##A=UV^T## tell you about the singular values of ##A##? What is your book's definition of a singular value?

Well, my book and other readings from the internet seem to suggest that a singular value is similar to an eigenvalue. However, a singular value is a value which multiple an orthonormal basis to get the product of another orthonormal basis and a matrix A. ##A=UV^T## seems to suggest the singular value is 1. Question: Is the singular value always 1 in a SVD? It seems to be the case because the basis vectors U and V are always orthonormal.
 
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According to "Linear algebra done wrong" by Sergei Treil (which can be downloaded for free online), the singular values of ##A## are the eigenvalues of the operator ##|A|##, defined by ##|A|=\sqrt{A^*A}##, where ##A^*## is the adjoint of ##A##. Knowing this makes it very easy to find the singular values in your problem (where ##A## takes one orthonormal basis to another).

If this isn't how your book defines them, then it must have provided some other definition, or at least a way to calculate them.
 
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