demonelite123
- 216
- 0
Let g(t) = f(tx, ty).
Using the chain rule, we get [itex]g'(t) = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x})(tx, ty) * x + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y})(tx, ty) * y[/itex]
this was actually part of a proof and what i don't understand is that why didn't they write [itex](\frac{\partial f}{\partial (tx)})[/itex] and [itex](\frac{\partial f}{\partial (ty)})[/itex]? i know that the factors of x and y come from [itex](\frac{\partial (tx)}{\partial t})[/itex] and [itex](\frac{\partial (ty)}{\partial t})[/itex] respectively, but why aren't the other 2 partial derivatives with respect to tx and ty? what happened to the t's?
Using the chain rule, we get [itex]g'(t) = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x})(tx, ty) * x + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y})(tx, ty) * y[/itex]
this was actually part of a proof and what i don't understand is that why didn't they write [itex](\frac{\partial f}{\partial (tx)})[/itex] and [itex](\frac{\partial f}{\partial (ty)})[/itex]? i know that the factors of x and y come from [itex](\frac{\partial (tx)}{\partial t})[/itex] and [itex](\frac{\partial (ty)}{\partial t})[/itex] respectively, but why aren't the other 2 partial derivatives with respect to tx and ty? what happened to the t's?