Why can an electron-positron collider only produce particles with spin 1?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of why an electron-positron collider can only produce particles with spin 1 in scenarios where only one particle is generated from the collision. The scope includes theoretical considerations and particle physics principles related to spin and quantum numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Laura questions the claim that an electron-positron collider can only produce spin-1 particles, suggesting there may be additional conditions or exceptions.
  • Some participants reference Yukawa-type couplings, indicating that annihilation processes could allow for the production of scalar particles under certain conditions, particularly if the scalar is massive.
  • There is a mention of a Physics Today article discussing bottomonium, where spin-0 states appear only as decays from spin-1 states, implying a potential general principle regarding particle production.
  • One participant explains that the exclusive production of quarkonium requires the (q\overline{q}) pair to have the same quantum numbers as the photon, which are 1--, suggesting a connection between photon properties and the produced particles.
  • Laura seeks clarification on the meaning of a virtual photon in the context of electron-positron annihilation leading to particle production.
  • There is a suggestion that if only a single particle is produced from an electron-positron collision, it must result from a photon, thus necessitating that the particle has spin 1.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the conditions under which spin-0 particles can be produced, with some arguing for the possibility under specific circumstances while others maintain that only spin-1 particles can be produced in the described scenario. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the general principle mentioned in the article.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about particle production processes, the definitions of spin states, and the specific conditions under which different types of particles can be produced. These factors contribute to the complexity of the discussion.

lark
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I read a statement in an article that an electron-positron collider can only make particles with spin 1, not spin 0, if just one particle is generated in the collision.
Why would that be? (Maybe there are more provisos to that. )
Laura
 
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Apparently if the electron and positron have spin in opposite directions, the magnetic moments would repel each other. I don't know if this is the explanation.
Laura
 
Last edited:
Can you tell us what the article was?

Naively, the Yukawa type coupling [tex]\bar{\psi} \psi \phi[/tex] would permit the annihilation of the fermion and anti-fermion described by [tex]\psi[/tex] into the scalar described by [tex]\phi[/tex] as long as [tex]\phi[/tex] is massive.

Perhaps the article was considering a special situation of some type?
 
Physics Monkey said:
Naively, the Yukawa type coupling [tex]\bar{\psi} \psi \phi[/tex] would permit the annihilation of the fermion and anti-fermion described by [tex]\psi[/tex] into the scalar described by [tex]\phi[/tex] as long as [tex]\phi[/tex] is massive.
Precisely how such a collider would produce the Higgs...
 
Physics Monkey said:
Can you tell us what the article was?

Naively, the Yukawa type coupling [tex]\bar{\psi} \psi \phi[/tex] would permit the annihilation of the fermion and anti-fermion described by [tex]\psi[/tex] into the scalar described by [tex]\phi[/tex] as long as [tex]\phi[/tex] is massive.

Perhaps the article was considering a special situation of some type?

It was an article in Physics Today about finding the http://blogs.physicstoday.org/update/2008/07/bottomonium-ground-state-in-th.html" , the meson which is composed of the bottom quark and bottom antiquark.
They can make excited spin-1 bottomonium but the spin-0 state only appears as a decay from the spin-1 state. By emitting a photon. The way the article put it, it sounds like a general principle is involved.
Laura
 
Last edited by a moderator:
The process for producing quarkonium exclusively (plus nothing else) is [itex]e^+ + e^- \rightarrow \gamma^* \rightarrow (q\overline{q})[/itex]. The [itex](q\overline{q})[/itex] pair needs to have the same quantum numbers as the photon, 1--.

If you allow inclusive production, you can have reactions like [itex]e^+ + e^- \rightarrow (q\overline{q}) + \gamma[/itex], which opens up many other quantum numbers for the [itex](q\overline{q})[/itex] pair.
 
Vanadium 50 said:
The process for producing quarkonium exclusively (plus nothing else) is [itex]e^+ + e^- \rightarrow \gamma^* \rightarrow (q\overline{q})[/itex]. The [itex](q\overline{q})[/itex] pair needs to have the same quantum numbers as the photon, 1--.

I see. So the electron-positron annihilation makes two photons, and one of them might turn into a bottomonium meson?

What does [itex]\gamma^*[/itex] mean? Virtual photon?

Laura
 
So in general when an electron collides with a positron, if it's only producing a single particle, that particle would result from a photon, so it would have to have spin 1?
Laura
 

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